NCLEX-RN
NCLEX RN Questions Medical Surgical Nursing Questions
Extract:
Question 1 of 5
A client who has had ulcerative colitis for the past 5 years is admitted to the hospital with an exacerbation of the disease. Which of the following factors was most likely of greatest significance in causing an exacerbation of ulcerative colitis?
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: Stopping corticosteroid therapy can lead to an exacerbation of ulcerative colitis, as corticosteroids help control inflammation. A demanding job or recent travel may contribute to stress but are less directly linked. A high-fiber diet is generally beneficial for managing symptoms unless during an acute flare. CN: Physiological adaptation; CL: Analyze
Question 2 of 5
Before abdominal surgery for an intestinal obstruction, the nurse monitors the client's urine output and finds the total output for the past 2 hours was 35 mL. The nurse then assesses the client's total intake and output over the last 24 hours and notes that he had 2,000 mL of I.V. fluid for intake, 500 mL of drainage from the nasogastric tube, and 700 mL of urine for a total output of 1,200 mL. This would indicate which of the following?
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: The low urine output (35 mL in 2 hours) and a 24-hour output (1,200 mL) less than intake (2,000 mL) suggest inadequate fluid replacement, as the body is retaining fluid or losing it through vomiting and NG drainage. Decreased renal function, pain, or obstruction extension are less directly indicated. CN: Physiological adaptation; CL: Analyze
Question 3 of 5
Which of the following laboratory findings would the nurse expect to find in a client with diverticulitis?
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: Diverticulitis, an inflammatory condition, typically causes an elevated white blood cell count due to infection or inflammation. Red blood cell count, platelet count, and blood urea nitrogen are not directly affected. CN: Physiological adaptation; CL: Analyze
Question 4 of 5
The nurse discovers that a client's TPN solution was running at an incorrect rate and is now 2 hours behind schedule. Which action is appropriate for the nurse to take to correct the problem?
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: Notifying the physician is appropriate when a TPN infusion is behind schedule, as adjusting rates without an order can cause complications like hyperglycemia or circulatory overload. Continuing at the current rate or doubling the rate is unsafe. CN: Pharmacological and parenteral therapies; CL: Synthesize
Question 5 of 5
A client post-appendectomy reports shoulder pain on the second postoperative day. The nurse should suspect which complication?
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: Shoulder pain post-appendectomy may indicate a subdiaphragmatic abscess due to referred pain from diaphragmatic irritation. Pneumonia, thrombosis, and wound infection typically present with other symptoms. CN: Physiological adaptation; CL: Analyze