NCLEX-RN
Psychiatric Mental Health Nursing NCLEX RN Questions Questions
Extract:
Question 1 of 5
A 68-year-old client has improved with medication and treatment and no longer experiences suicidal ideation. She can manage her diabetic care and understands her diet requirements. She will be discharged to live alone in her apartment. Visits by which of the following caregivers is most important for the nurse to arrange before the client's discharge?
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: A psychiatric home care nurse ensures ongoing mental health monitoring post-discharge.
Question 2 of 5
The psychiatric unit is short-staffed for the evening shift. Which of the following clients should the nurse manager assign to the certified psychiatric technician instead of the registered nurse?
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: A stable client with schizophrenia attending group therapy requires less intensive monitoring, suitable for a certified psychiatric technician.
Question 3 of 5
The nurse manager on a psychiatric unit is reviewing the outcomes of staff participation in an aggression management program. Evaluation of such a program would be based primarily on which of the following indicators?
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: The primary indicator is a reduction in the total number of restraint procedures, as effective aggression management should decrease the need for restraints. Fewer injuries, reduced complaints, and training reviews are secondary outcomes.
Question 4 of 5
A client is brought to the emergency department by his brother. The client is perspiring profusely, breathing rapidly, and complaining of dizziness and palpitations. Problems of a cardiovascular nature are ruled out and the diagnosis is tentatively listed as a panic attack. After the symptoms pass, the client states, 'I thought I was going to die.' Which of the following responses by the nurse is best?
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: Saying 'It was very frightening for you' is best, as it validates the client's experience, builds rapport, and encourages further discussion of the panic attack.
Question 5 of 5
A client with depression who is taking doxepin (Sinequan) 100 mg P.O. at bedtime has dizziness on arising. Which of the following suggestions is most appropriate?
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: Orthostatic hypotension is a side effect of doxepin; rising slowly minimizes dizziness and fall risk.