NCLEX-RN
Basic Adult Health Care NCLEX Questions Questions
Extract:
Question 1 of 5
A 60-year-old female with chronic cancer pain has been receiving opiates for 4 months. She rated her pain as an 8 on a 10-point scale before starting the opioid medication. She has just had a thorough examination with no new evidence of increased disease, yet her pain is close to 8 again. The most likely explanation for her increasing pain is:
Correct Answer: B
Rationale:
Tolerance to opioids is the most likely explanation, as the body adapts to the medication over time, reducing its effectiveness and requiring a dose adjustment.
Question 2 of 5
A 60-year-old female with chronic cancer pain has been receiving opiates for 4 months. She rated her pain as an 8 on a 10-point scale before starting the opioid medication. She has just had a thorough examination with no new evidence of increased disease, yet her pain is close to 8 again. The most likely explanation for her increasing pain is:
Correct Answer: B
Rationale:
Tolerance to opioids is the most likely explanation, as the body adapts to the medication over time, reducing its effectiveness and requiring a dose adjustment.
Question 3 of 5
A client developed shock after a severe myocardial infarction and has now developed acute renal failure. The nurse should base the response on the knowledge that there was:
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: Decreased renal blood flow from shock post-myocardial infarction reduces kidney perfusion, leading to acute renal failure.
Question 4 of 5
What is a priority nursing action for a client post-ileal conduit surgery?
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: Monitoring stoma color ensures viability; a pink/red stoma indicates good blood supply.
Question 5 of 5
The nurse is teaching a client about taking prophylactic warfarin sodium (Coumadin). Which statement indicates that the client understands how to take the drug?
Correct Answer: B,C,E
Rationale: Warfarin's maximum effect takes 3-4 days (
B), its effects persist 4-5 days after stopping (
C), and periodic blood tests (e.g., INR) are required (E). Peak action is not 2 hours, and protamine sulfate is the antidote for heparin, not warfarin.