NCLEX-PN
NCLEX Client Needs Physiologic Adaptation Questions
Extract:
Question 1 of 5
A 32-year-old female frequently comes to her primary care provider with vague complaints of headache, abdominal pain, and trouble sleeping. In the past, the physician has dutifully prescribed medication, but little else. Which of the following comments by the nurse to the physician is appropriate?
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: There is a correlation between vague symptoms, such as abdominal pain, and battered syndrome. The astute clinician should question any woman who presents with suspicious symptoms such as these. Rarely are women offended by a properly worded question, such as, 'Do you feel safe in your present relationship?' Studies show an increase in case finding when such questions are asked. It is not mandatory that all women are assessed for violence, but it is prudent that all persons new to a clinician be assessed by at least the one question noted previously. Castigating or shaming the physician typically does not improve client outcomes and might make for a difficult working environment for the nurse. Tactless comments, like the one in
Choice 4, are not collegial and should be avoided.
Question 2 of 5
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Question 3 of 5
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Question 4 of 5
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Question 5 of 5
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