HESI LPN
PN Exit Exam 2023 Quizlet Questions
Question 1 of 5
According to the principle of asepsis, which situation should the PN consider to be sterile?
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: According to the principle of asepsis, the one-inch border around the edges of a sterile field set up in the operating room is considered non-sterile, while the central area remains sterile.
Therefore, the PN should consider the situation described in choice A to be sterile.
Choice B is incorrect because a glove that may have touched hair is contaminated.
Choice C is incorrect as a sterile item placed on a damp surface is considered contaminated.
Choice D is incorrect as a sterile kit set up at the PN's waist level is prone to contamination.
Question 2 of 5
Which type of isolation is required for a patient with measles?
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B: Airborne isolation. Measles is highly contagious and can be transmitted through airborne particles, so airborne isolation is necessary to prevent its spread.
Choice A, Contact isolation, is incorrect because measles is not primarily transmitted through direct contact.
Choice C, Droplet isolation, is also incorrect as measles is not transmitted through large droplets but through smaller airborne particles.
Choice D, Reverse isolation, is used to protect a patient from outside infections, not to prevent the spread of a contagious disease like measles.
Question 3 of 5
When documenting information in a client's medical record, what should the nurse do?
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: When documenting information in a client's medical record, the nurse should end each entry with their signature and title. This practice is crucial for legal and professional standards compliance as it ensures that the documentation is attributable to the responsible individual.
Choices A, B, and C are incorrect because while crossing out errors, using a black ink pen, and leaving a blank line before each entry are good practices, they are not as critical as ensuring each entry is signed and titled by the nurse for accountability and traceability.
Question 4 of 5
Which electrolyte imbalance is most likely to cause cardiac arrhythmias?
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: Hyperkalemia is the correct answer as it can lead to dangerous cardiac arrhythmias due to its effects on the electrical conduction of the heart. High levels of potassium can disrupt the normal electrical activity of the heart, potentially leading to life-threatening arrhythmias. Hypocalcemia (choice
B) is not the most likely cause of cardiac arrhythmias compared to hyperkalemia. Hypernatremia (choice
C), referring to high sodium levels, is not directly associated with causing cardiac arrhythmias. While hypokalemia (choice
D), low potassium levels, can also lead to cardiac arrhythmias, hyperkalemia is the more likely culprit in causing severe disturbances in heart rhythm.
Question 5 of 5
Which of the following best describes the role of insulin in the body?
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B: Insulin facilitates the movement of glucose into cells. Insulin is a hormone that helps regulate blood sugar levels by promoting the uptake of glucose from the bloodstream into cells, where it can be used for energy production.
Choice A is incorrect because insulin doesn't break down glucose but rather helps cells take up glucose.
Choice C is incorrect as insulin does not directly convert glucose into fat; excess glucose is stored as fat by other processes.
Choice D is incorrect as insulin does not increase the breakdown of protein into amino acids; its primary role is in glucose metabolism.