HESI LPN
HESI Maternal Newborn Questions
Question 1 of 5
In the context of an average ejaculation, which of the following statements is true about sperm?
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: Out of millions of sperm released during ejaculation, only a small fraction, about 1 in 1,000, will approach the ovum. This statement is true as sperm face many obstacles and challenges on their journey to reach and fertilize an ovum.
Choice A is incorrect because the average count of sperm in an ejaculate is typically in the millions, not billions.
Choice B is incorrect as sperm do not find the ovum by following the current of fluid; they navigate using other mechanisms.
Choice D is incorrect because while some sperm may move randomly in the vagina, the ones that approach the ovum do so through a more purposeful and directed movement.
Question 2 of 5
A nurse is caring for an infant who has signs of neonatal abstinence syndrome. Which of the following actions should the nurse take?
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: Initiating seizure precautions is crucial when caring for an infant with neonatal abstinence syndrome due to the increased risk of seizures. Providing a calm environment (
Choice
A) is important to reduce stimulation as these infants may be irritable. Monitoring blood glucose levels (
Choice
B) is not typically a priority in neonatal abstinence syndrome unless specific signs or symptoms suggest the need for this assessment. Placing the infant on their back with legs extended (
Choice
D) does not directly address the potential complications associated with neonatal abstinence syndrome, such as seizures.
Question 3 of 5
When assessing a woman in the first stage of labor, which clinical finding will alert the nurse that uterine contractions are effective?
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: During the first stage of labor, effective uterine contractions lead to cervical dilation. Dilation of the cervix is a key indicator that uterine contractions are progressing labor. Descent of the fetus to -2 station (
Choice
B) is related to the fetal position in the pelvis and not a direct indicator of uterine contraction effectiveness. Rupture of the amniotic membranes (
Choice
C) signifies the rupture of the fluid-filled sac surrounding the fetus and does not directly reflect uterine contraction effectiveness. An increase in bloody show (
Choice
D) can be a sign of impending labor, but it is not a direct indicator of uterine contraction effectiveness.
Question 4 of 5
Which of the following illnesses causes degeneration of the central nervous system?
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: Tay-Sachs disease is a genetic disorder that causes a progressive degeneration of the central nervous system, particularly in infants.
Choice B, Cystic fibrosis, is a genetic disorder that primarily affects the lungs and digestive system, not the central nervous system.
Choices C and D, Turner syndrome and Klinefelter syndrome, are chromosomal disorders that do not directly involve degeneration of the central nervous system.
Question 5 of 5
A client in the transition phase of labor reports a pain level of 7 on a scale of 0 to 10. Which of the following actions should the nurse take?
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: During the transition phase of labor, a client may experience intense back pain due to the pressure of the baby descending. Applying counterpressure to the client's sacrum can help alleviate this discomfort. Effleurage is a light stroking massage technique that may not provide adequate relief for intense back pain. Patterned-paced breathing is beneficial for managing contractions but may not directly address back pain. Biofeedback is a technique that helps individuals gain awareness and control of certain physiological functions, but it may not be the most appropriate intervention for acute labor pain.