HESI LPN
HESI Maternal Newborn Questions
Question 1 of 5
A client who is receiving prenatal care is at her 24-week appointment. Which of the following laboratory tests should the nurse plan to conduct?
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B: 1-hour glucose tolerance test. At around 24-28 weeks of gestation, a pregnant individual is typically screened for gestational diabetes. The 1-hour glucose tolerance test helps in identifying elevated blood sugar levels during pregnancy.
Choice A, Group B strep culture, is not typically performed at the 24-week appointment but later in the third trimester to screen for Group B streptococcus colonization.
Choice C, Rubella titer, is usually checked early in pregnancy to determine immunity to rubella.
Choice D, Blood type and Rh, is important for determining the client's blood type and Rh status, but it is usually done earlier in pregnancy and not specifically at the 24-week appointment.
Question 2 of 5
A nurse is caring for an infant who has signs of neonatal abstinence syndrome. Which of the following actions should the nurse take?
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: Initiating seizure precautions is crucial when caring for an infant with neonatal abstinence syndrome due to the increased risk of seizures. Providing a calm environment (
Choice
A) is important to reduce stimulation as these infants may be irritable. Monitoring blood glucose levels (
Choice
B) is not typically a priority in neonatal abstinence syndrome unless specific signs or symptoms suggest the need for this assessment. Placing the infant on their back with legs extended (
Choice
D) does not directly address the potential complications associated with neonatal abstinence syndrome, such as seizures.
Question 3 of 5
A client is 4 hours postpartum and is experiencing hypovolemic shock. Which of the following actions should the nurse take?
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: In hypovolemic shock, there is decreased oxygen delivery to tissues. Administering oxygen at 4L/min via nasal cannula can help improve oxygenation and support tissue perfusion. Indomethacin (
Choice
A) is a nonsteroidal anti-inflammatory drug and is not indicated in the management of hypovolemic shock. Inserting a second 22-gauge IV catheter (
Choice
B) may be necessary for fluid resuscitation, but oxygen administration takes precedence. Inserting an indwelling urinary catheter (
Choice
C) may be considered for monitoring urinary output, but it is not the priority action in managing hypovolemic shock.
Question 4 of 5
A primigravida is being monitored at the prenatal clinic for preeclampsia. Which finding is of greatest concern to the nurse?
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C. Proteinuria, indicated by a dipstick value of 3+ in the urine, is a significant concern in a patient being monitored for preeclampsia. Proteinuria is a key diagnostic criterion for preeclampsia, and a value of 3+ signifies a substantial amount of protein in the urine, warranting further evaluation. While an increase in blood pressure to 138/86 mm Hg is slightly elevated, it does not meet the diagnostic threshold for severe hypertension in preeclampsia. A weight gain of 0.5 kg over 2 weeks is within normal limits and not as concerning as significant rapid weight gain. Pitting pedal edema, though common in pregnancy, is not a specific indicator of preeclampsia and is considered a less concerning finding compared to significant proteinuria.
Question 5 of 5
What is the typical sex chromosome pattern for females?
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The typical sex chromosome pattern for females is XX. Females have two X chromosomes, which is represented as XX.
Choice B (XYY) is incorrect as it represents the sex chromosome pattern for males with an extra Y chromosome.
Choice C (XY) is the sex chromosome pattern for males.
Choice D (XXY) represents a genetic disorder known as Klinefelter syndrome, where males have an extra X chromosome.