HESI LPN
Medical Surgical HESI Questions
Question 1 of 5
A client with rheumatoid arthritis has elevated serum rheumatoid factor. Which interpretation of this finding should the nurse make?
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The correct interpretation of elevated serum rheumatoid factor in a client with rheumatoid arthritis is confirmation of the autoimmune disease process. Rheumatoid factor is a marker for autoimmune activity, thus confirming the diagnosis of rheumatoid arthritis.
Choice A is incorrect as elevated rheumatoid factor does not specifically indicate spread of the disease to the kidney.
Choice C is incorrect as elevated rheumatoid factor does not always represent a decline in the client's condition.
Choice D is incorrect as elevated rheumatoid factor is not an indication of the onset of joint degeneration, but rather points towards autoimmune activity.
Question 2 of 5
Parents of a 6-month-old child, who has just been diagnosed with iron deficiency anemia, ask why it was not diagnosed earlier. What would be the best response by the nurse?
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The best response by the nurse would be choice B: 'This happens when the maternal stores of iron are depleted at about 6 months.' Iron deficiency anemia becomes apparent at about 6 months of age in a full-term infant when the maternal stores of iron are depleted.
Choice A is incorrect because it questions the diagnosis provided by the healthcare provider.
Choice C is incorrect because iron deficiency anemia in infants is primarily due to insufficient iron intake rather than blood loss.
Choice D is incorrect as iron deficiency anemia typically develops gradually due to inadequate iron intake.
Question 3 of 5
After a CT scan with intravenous contrast medium, a client returns to the room complaining of shortness of breath and itching. Which intervention should the nurse implement?
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: Preparing a dose of epinephrine is the correct intervention in this situation as the client is displaying symptoms of an anaphylactic reaction to the contrast medium used during the CT scan. Epinephrine is the first-line treatment for anaphylaxis due to its ability to reverse the symptoms rapidly. Calling respiratory therapy for a breathing treatment (
Choice
A) may not address the underlying allergic reaction and delay appropriate treatment. Sending for an emergency tracheostomy set (
Choice
B) is not indicated as the client's symptoms suggest an allergic reaction rather than airway obstruction. Reviewing the client's complete list of allergies (
Choice
D) is important but would not provide immediate relief for the client's current symptoms; administering epinephrine takes precedence in this situation.
Question 4 of 5
Following surgical repair of a cleft palate, what should be used to prevent injury to the suture line?
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: Following surgical repair of a cleft palate, a cup should be used to prevent injury to the suture line. Utensils such as straws, spoons, droppers, and syringes should be avoided as they can cause trauma to the surgical site. Using a cup reduces the risk of disrupting the sutures and promotes proper healing.
Question 5 of 5
Which pathology is associated with an asthma condition?
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B: Recurrent spasms of the airways accompanied by edema and mucus production. Asthma is characterized by bronchospasms, inflammation, swelling of the airways, and increased mucus production. This leads to airway constriction, making it difficult to breathe.
Choices A, C, and D do not represent the typical pathology seen in asthma. Chronic dilation and inflammation of the bronchi (
Choice
A) is more characteristic of bronchiectasis, progressive loss of lung function due to destruction of alveolar walls (
Choice
C) is seen in conditions like emphysema, and infection of the lung parenchyma (
Choice
D) is more related to conditions like pneumonia.