HESI LPN
PN Exit Exam 2023 Quizlet Questions
Question 1 of 9
The PN assigns a UAP to assist with the personal care of a client experiencing an acute exacerbation of multiple sclerosis. Which instruction should the PN provide the UAP?
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: During an acute exacerbation of multiple sclerosis, it is important to encourage self-care to maintain the client's independence. Allowing rest periods helps prevent fatigue, which is crucial in managing MS exacerbations. Choice A is incorrect as hot baths can exacerbate symptoms in MS. Choice C is about communication techniques and not directly related to client care during an exacerbation. Choice D is not a priority intervention during an MS exacerbation.
Question 2 of 9
Which type of isolation is required for a patient with measles?
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B: Airborne isolation. Measles is highly contagious and can be transmitted through airborne particles, so airborne isolation is necessary to prevent its spread. Choice A, Contact isolation, is incorrect because measles is not primarily transmitted through direct contact. Choice C, Droplet isolation, is also incorrect as measles is not transmitted through large droplets but through smaller airborne particles. Choice D, Reverse isolation, is used to protect a patient from outside infections, not to prevent the spread of a contagious disease like measles.
Question 3 of 9
The PN administered darbepoetin alfa to a client with chronic kidney disease (CKD). Which serum laboratory value should the PN monitor to assess the effectiveness of this drug?
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: Darbepoetin alfa is used to stimulate red blood cell production in clients with CKD. Monitoring hemoglobin levels is essential to assess the effectiveness of the treatment and to adjust the dosage to avoid complications such as hypertension or thrombosis. Monitoring calcium (Choice A), phosphorus (Choice B), or white blood cell count (Choice D) is not directly related to the effectiveness of darbepoetin alfa in treating anemia associated with CKD.
Question 4 of 9
A client has a prescription for a transcutaneous electrical nerve stimulator (TENS) unit for pain management during the postoperative period following a lumbar laminectomy. Which information should the PN reinforce about the action of the adjuvant pain modality?
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: The TENS unit works by providing a mild electrical stimulus to the skin, which helps to 'close the gate' on pain signals, reducing the perception of pain. Choice A is incorrect because distraction is not the primary mechanism of action for TENS. Choice B is incorrect as it describes a different method of pain management involving medication infusion into the spinal canal. Choice C is incorrect as it inaccurately describes the location of pain perception modulation by the TENS unit.
Question 5 of 9
Based on the computer documentation in the EMR, which action should the PN implement?
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The rubella vaccine is crucial for preventing rubella infection, which can cause severe congenital disabilities if contracted during pregnancy. Administering the vaccine subcutaneously is the correct action based on EMR documentation. Observing breastfeeding, calling the nursery for blood type results, and administering pain medication are not indicated by the EMR documentation and are not relevant to the situation described in the question.
Question 6 of 9
A post-operative client develops a sudden onset of chest pain and dyspnea. The nurse suspects a pulmonary embolism (PE). What is the priority nursing action?
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: Administering oxygen via face mask is the priority nursing action in a post-operative client suspected of a pulmonary embolism. This intervention helps ensure adequate oxygenation while further assessments and interventions are initiated. Elevating the client's legs is not indicated for a suspected pulmonary embolism; it is more appropriate for conditions like shock. Immediate surgery is not the priority in this situation as the client is experiencing acute symptoms requiring prompt intervention. While notifying the healthcare provider is important, the immediate focus should be on providing oxygen to the client to support respiratory function.
Question 7 of 9
The PN assigns a UAP to assist with the personal care of a client experiencing an acute exacerbation of multiple sclerosis. Which instruction should the PN provide the UAP?
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: During an acute exacerbation of multiple sclerosis, it is important to encourage self-care to maintain the client's independence. Allowing rest periods helps prevent fatigue, which is crucial in managing MS exacerbations. Choice A is incorrect as hot baths can exacerbate symptoms in MS. Choice C is about communication techniques and not directly related to client care during an exacerbation. Choice D is not a priority intervention during an MS exacerbation.
Question 8 of 9
Which cranial nerve is responsible for the sense of smell?
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The olfactory nerve (Cranial Nerve I) is indeed responsible for the sense of smell. It is located in the nasal cavity and transmits olfactory information to the brain. The optic nerve (Choice B) is responsible for vision, the trigeminal nerve (Choice C) is responsible for sensation in the face, and the vagus nerve (Choice D) is responsible for various functions such as heart rate, digestion, and speech. Therefore, the correct answer is the olfactory nerve (Choice A).
Question 9 of 9
What is the most effective way to communicate with a patient who has expressive aphasia?
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: The most effective way to communicate with a patient who has expressive aphasia is by using picture boards or communication cards. These tools allow patients to convey their needs and responses more effectively when they struggle to speak. Using picture boards or communication cards (Choice C) is preferred as it provides a visual aid to support communication. Asking yes or no questions (Choice A) may limit the patient's ability to express themselves fully. Encouraging the patient to write responses (Choice B) may not be suitable if the patient also has difficulty writing due to the aphasia. While speaking slowly and clearly (Choice D) is important, it may not be sufficient to overcome the communication challenges faced by patients with expressive aphasia.