NCLEX-RN
NCLEX RN Test Bank Questions PDF Questions
Extract:
Question 1 of 5
You are preparing to administer a PRN medication for pain. After your assessment of the client for pain you open the narcotics cabinet with the special key. Your calculations indicate that the client will be getting 0.8 mLs of the medication and the unit dose vial is 1 mL. You discard the excess of 0.2 mLs into the sink drain and enter the client's room. After you identify the client using two unique identifiers, the client refuses the medication. You then discard the 0.8 mLs into the sink and document the client's refusal on the narcotics count record. What have you failed to do during this process?
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: Narcotic wastage (both 0.2 mL and 0.8 mL) requires a witness to ensure accountability and prevent diversion, per standard protocol.
Question 2 of 5
A nurse is assessing a client with metastatic lung cancer. The nurse should assess the client for:
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: Hoarseness is a common symptom of metastatic lung cancer due to tumor effects on the larynx or recurrent laryngeal nerve. Constipation, diarrhea, and weight gain are less specific.
Question 3 of 5
A client who has glaucoma has been prescribed timolol (Timoptic) eyedrops. Which of the following instructions should the nurse give the client about the administration of the eyedrops?
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: Timolol eyedrops may cause transient eye discomfort, such as stinging or burning, which is a common side effect. Instilling drops only when eyes are irritated is incorrect, as timolol requires regular dosing. Refrigeration is not necessary, and reevaluation timing depends on the physician's plan, not a fixed month.
Question 4 of 5
The nurse is administering eyedrops to a client with glaucoma. Which of the following is a correct technique for instilling the eyedrops? The eyedrops are placed:
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: Placing eyedrops in the lower conjunctival sac ensures proper absorption and minimizes irritation or injury to the cornea or sclera.
Question 5 of 5
Mebendazole (Vermox) is prescribed for an 8-year-old child with pinworms. The child has an 18-month-old brother and a 4-year-old sister. The nurse should be sure that the parents are also treating which of the following family members with this drug?
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: Pinworms are highly contagious, so all household members should be treated with mebendazole to prevent reinfection, regardless of symptoms.