NCLEX-PN
NCLEX PN Prep Questions Questions
Extract:
Question 1 of 5
Which of these findings indicate that a pump set to deliver a basal rate of 10 ml per hour plus PRN morphine drip for breakthrough pain is not working?
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: The minimal dose is 10 ml per hour, which would mean 40 mls are given in a 4 hour period. Only 60 mls should be left at noon. The pump is not functioning when more than expected medicine is left in the container.
Question 2 of 5
The nurse is talking with the parent of a pediatric client with attention deficit hyperactivity disorder who has a new prescription for methylphenidate. The parent asks, 'How will I know that the medication is effective?' Which of the following responses would be appropriate for the nurse to make?
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: Methylphenidate improves focus and task completion in ADHD. It may increase irritability or decrease appetite as side effects, and sleep patterns vary but aren't a primary indicator of effectiveness.
Question 3 of 5
A client is admitted for COPD. Which findings would require the nurse's immediate attention?
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: Restlessness and confusion. Respiratory failure may be signaled by excessive somnolence, restlessness, aggressiveness, confusion, central cyanosis and shortness of breath. When these findings occur, arterial blood gases (ABGs) should be obtained.
Question 4 of 5
The nurse is preparing to administer phenytoin oral suspension via nasogastric tube to a client with a seizure disorder. The client is receiving continuous enteral feedings. Which of the following actions should the nurse take?
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: Phenytoin binds to enteral feedings, reducing absorption. Holding feedings for 1 hour before and after administration ensures efficacy. Tube placement should be verified before, not after, administration. Blood pressure and pancreatic enzymes are unrelated.
Extract:
Laboratory results
Glucose (fasting)
70-110 mg/dL
(3.9-6.1 mmol/L)
180 mg/dL
(10.0 mmol/L)
Question 5 of 5
The nurse is preparing to administer insulin aspart subcutaneously at 0700 to a client with type 1 diabetes mellitus. Which of following actions would be a priority for the nurse to take?
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: Insulin aspart is rapid-acting, peaking within 1-3 hours. Administering it at 0700 requires breakfast within 15 minutes to prevent hypoglycemia. Site selection is routine, rechecking glucose later is secondary, and teaching is not urgent.