NCLEX-PN
NCLEX Trainer Test 5 Questions
Extract:
A 33-year-old woman comes to the local outpatient clinic for complaints of dizziness and palpitations. Her physical exam and laboratory results are normal. She reports that the company she owns is on the verge of bankruptcy.
Question 1 of 5
Which of the following responses, if made to the client by the nurse, would be BEST?
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: Strategy: 'BEST' indicates there may be more than one correct response. Remember therapeutic communication. (1) correct-open-ended question, encourages client to discuss when problems occurred (2) yes/no question, nontherapeutic, doesn't encourage discussion of symptoms (3) yes/no question, nontherapeutic, too confrontational, does not encourage discussion (4) yes/no question, nontherapeutic
Extract:
Question 2 of 5
A polydrug user has been in recovery for 8 months. The client has began skipping breakfast and not eating regular dinners. The client has also started frequenting bars to 'see old buddies.' The nurse understands that the client's behaviors are warning signs to indicate that the client may be
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: Headed for relapse. These behaviors suggest a return to risky environments and habits, indicating potential relapse.
Question 3 of 5
The mother of a 10-year-old boy with IDDM (insulin-dependent diabetes mellitus) calls to discuss the child’s self-monitoring blood glucose (SMBG) home readings. He is being tightly regulated with a combination of NPH and regular insulin before breakfast and supper. The past two mornings his blood sugar readings were 220 mg/dL and 210 mg/dL. The nurse should advise the mother to
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: High morning blood sugars suggest rebound hyperglycemia (Somogyi effect) from nocturnal hypoglycemia, requiring nighttime glucose checks. Options A, C, and D are premature: continuing the regimen ignores the issue, and adjusting insulin or snack timing requires confirmation.
Question 4 of 5
The nurse performs an assessment of an 8-year-old girl diagnosed with scoliosis.
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: Scoliosis causes lateral spinal curvature, leading to thoracic asymmetry. Waddling gait is associated with hip issues, edema with circulatory problems, and a protruding sternum with pectus carinatum, none of which are typical of scoliosis.
Question 5 of 5
The nurse is caring for a client with a history of heart failure who is receiving spironolactone (Aldactone) 25 mg PO daily. Which of the following client statements would be of GREATest concern to the nurse?
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: Muscle cramps suggest hyperkalemia, a serious side effect of spironolactone, a potassium-sparing diuretic, requiring immediate evaluation to prevent arrhythmias. Options A, B, and D are less concerning: fatigue and dry mouth are nonspecific, and taking with food is acceptable.