NCLEX-PN
NCLEX Trainer Test 1 Questions
Extract:
A 46-year-old man with newly diagnosed diabetes mellitus.
Question 1 of 5
Which of the following responses by the nurse is BEST?
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: Strategy: All answers are implementations. Determine the outcome of each answer choice. Is it desired? (1) should buy shoes in the afternoon when feet are larger than in the morning (2) correct-feet enlarge with age, don't break in shoes all at one time, have measurements for shoes taken while standing (feet are larger) (3) buy correct shoe size (4) leather shoes recommended because they 'breathe', vinyl could cause foot to perspire and aggravate fungal infections
Extract:
Question 2 of 5
An adult is admitted with deep partialthickness and full-thickness burns on both lower legs, the anterior chest, and the anterior and posterior aspects of the right arm. Using the Rule of Nines, calculate the percentage of body burned.
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: Using the Rule of Nines: both lower legs (18%), anterior chest (9%), right arm anterior and posterior (9%) = 18 + 9 + 9 = 36% total body surface area burned.
Question 3 of 5
The nurse is teaching a client with a new diagnosis of depression about fluoxetine (Prozac). Which of the following instructions should the nurse include?
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: Suicidal thoughts are a serious fluoxetine side effect, requiring immediate reporting. Options A, C, and D are incorrect.
Question 4 of 5
Following surgery for placement of a ventriculoperitoneal (VP) shunt as treatment for hydrocephalus, the parents question why the infant has a small abdominal incision. The best response by the nurse would be to explain that the incision was made in order to
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: Pass the catheter into the abdominal cavity. The VP shunt drains cerebrospinal fluid into the peritoneal cavity via a catheter inserted through an abdominal incision.
Question 5 of 5
An elderly client is admitted to a skilled nursing care facility. When doing a skin assessment, the nurse notes a 3-cm round area of partial-thickness skin loss that looks like a blister on the client's sacrum. The nurse interprets this to be a:
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: A stage II pressure ulcer involves partial-thickness skin loss, often presenting as a blister or shallow open ulcer, matching the description. Stage I is non-blanchable erythema, stage III involves full-thickness loss, and stage IV extends to muscle/bone.