NCLEX-PN
NCLEX-PN Practice Questions Quizlet Questions
Extract:
Question 1 of 5
Which of the following medications is a serotonin antagonist that might be used to relieve nausea and vomiting?
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: Ondansetron is a serotonin (5-HT3) receptor antagonist effective for nausea and vomiting, particularly in chemotherapy or postoperative settings. The other medications have different mechanisms. Physiological Adaptation
Question 2 of 5
A 55-year-old woman is recovering from a bowel resection. She is receiving epidural analgesia. She lived by herself right up until admission and has no cognitive deficits. All of the following interventions will reduce the risk of client falls. Which would be most appropriate for this client?
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: Keeping the bed low and call bell accessible promotes safety and independence, most appropriate for a cognitively intact client.
Question 3 of 5
A client with polysubstance abuse has been admitted to the hospital for detoxification. Which of the following drugs represents the most serious life-threatening situation during the withdrawal period?
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: Secobarbital, a barbiturate, poses the most serious risk during withdrawal, as it can lead to life-threatening seizures and delirium. Methadone and heroin withdrawal are uncomfortable but less likely to be fatal, and cocaine withdrawal is primarily psychological.
Question 4 of 5
The nurse is preparing to administer a dose of morphine sulfate to a client with postoperative pain. The client reports nausea. The nurse should
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: Nausea is a common side effect of morphine, and administering an antiemetic beforehand (if ordered) prevents discomfort while allowing pain relief. Administering without addressing nausea (
A) is inappropriate, holding the dose (
B) delays pain control, and dilution (
D) is incorrect for IV morphine.
Question 5 of 5
The nurse is caring for a client with a deep vein thrombosis (DVT) who is receiving heparin therapy. Which of the following laboratory values should the nurse monitor closely?
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: Heparin’s anticoagulant effect is monitored via aPTT, with a therapeutic range of 1.5–2.5 times the control value to ensure effective DVT treatment without bleeding risk. PT/INR (A,
C) monitor warfarin, and platelet count (
D) is monitored for heparin-induced thrombocytopenia but is secondary.