NCLEX-PN
NCLEX Trainer Test 6 Questions
Extract:
A 35-year-old woman one-day postpartum receiving butorphanol tartrate (Stadol) 1 mg IM.
Question 1 of 5
Which of the following actions is MOST important for the nurse to take after administering the medication?
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: Strategy: Determine the cause of each answer choice and how it relates to Stadol. (1) causes sedation, but not most important (2) correct-decreases rate and depth of respirations (3) diplopia and blurred vision are side effects, but not most important (4) not side effect of medication
Extract:
Question 2 of 5
A client was admitted to the psychiatric unit after complaining to her friends and family that neighbors have bugged her home in order to hear all of her business. She remains aloof from other clients, paces the floor and believes that the hospital is a house of torture. Nursing interventions for the client should appropriately focus on efforts to
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: Provide interactions to help the client learn to trust staff. Establishing trust helps clients feel safer and facilitates a therapeutic alliance between staff and client.
Extract:
A client has a total laryngectomy with a permanent tracheostomy.
Question 3 of 5
Which of the following would be necessary for the nurse to consider regarding the client's nutrition?
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: Strategy: Think about each answer choice. (1) correct-tube feedings frequently started as the initial nutritional intake; prevents trauma to suture area (2) although the client has permanent tracheotomy, will be able to eat normally after area has healed (3) nutritional intake will begin when bowel sounds return and client can tolerate intake (4) client is not dependent on ventilator
Extract:
Question 4 of 5
A 34-year-old male is admitted to the hospital with a possible diagnosis of pheochromocytoma. Which of the following symptoms would the nurse not expect to see during an attack?
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: Pheochromocytoma causes catecholamine release, leading to tachycardia, not bradycardia, during an attack.
Question 5 of 5
Treatment of sickle cell crises includes the application of:
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: Heat application to joints during sickle cell crises promotes vasodilation, improving blood flow and reducing pain from vaso-occlusion. Ice may worsen vasoconstriction, CPM is irrelevant, and TENS is not standard for sickle cell pain.