NCLEX-PN
NCLEX Trainer Test 3 Questions
Extract:
Question 1 of 5
Which assessment finding is most indicative of increased ICP in a client admitted with a basilar skull fracture?
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: Papilledema, or swelling of the optic disc, is a specific sign of increased intracranial pressure due to pressure on the optic nerve. Nausea, vomiting, headache, and dizziness are less specific symptoms, so answers A, B, and C are incorrect.
Question 2 of 5
The nurse is teaching a client with a new diagnosis of type 2 diabetes about insulin detemir (Levemir). Which of the following statements by the client indicates a need for further teaching?
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: Taking insulin detemir when blood sugar is high is incorrect, as it is a long-acting basal insulin for steady control, not for acute hyperglycemia. Options A, B, and C are correct: bedtime dosing is standard, rotation prevents lipodystrophy, and refrigeration preserves insulin.
Question 3 of 5
An adult is admitted with gastroenteritis. The physician has ordered prochlorperazine (Compazine) 10 mg PO tid PRN or prochlorperazine (Compazine) 5 mg suppository every 6 hours PRN and loperamide (Imodium) 2 mg PO PRN. The client has an episode of diarrhea and complains of nausea. What should the nurse administer?
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: Nausea and diarrhea warrant both prochlorperazine (anti-emetic) and loperamide (anti-diarrheal) orally, addressing both symptoms effectively.
Extract:
An 18-year-old client with anorexia nervosa is admitted to the hospital.
Question 4 of 5
In planning to care for the client, the nurse would expect the client to
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: Strategy: Determine how each answer choice relates to anorexia. (1) usually view their appearance as fat (2) inaccurate for client with anorexia nervosa (3) correct-display a marked preoccupation with food (4) inaccurate for client with anorexia nervosa
Extract:
After abdominal surgery, a client is admitted from the recovery room with intravenous fluid infusing at 100 cc/h. One hour later, the nurse finds the clamp wide open and notes that the client has received 850 cc.
Question 5 of 5
The nurse would be MOST concerned by which of the following?
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: Strategy: 'MOST concerned' indicates a complication. (1) CVP is normal, and bradycardia is incorrect (2) does not contain information relevant to fluid overload (3) does not contain information relevant to fluid overload (4) correct-indicate cardiovascular fluid overload