NCLEX-PN
NCLEX Trainer Test 1 Questions
Extract:
Question 1 of 5
Which action is most likely to ensure the safety of the nurse while making a home visit?
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: Remain alert at all times and leave if cues suggest the home is not safe. No person or equipment can guarantee nurses' safety, although the risk of violence can be minimized. Before making initial visits, review referral information carefully and have a plan to communicate with agency staff. Schedule appointments with clients. When driving into an area for the first time, note potential hazards. Observe surroundings when parking, walking to the client's door, making the visit, walking back to the car, and driving away. LISTEN to clients. If they tell you to leave, do so.
Question 2 of 5
The nursing assistant reports to the nurse that a client who is one-day postoperative after an angioplasty is refusing to eat and states, 'I just don't feel good.'
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: Assessment is required to determine the cause of the client’s symptoms, as they could indicate complications such as vessel closure, bleeding, hypotension, or dysrhythmias. Talking with the client to assess current symptoms is the most immediate and appropriate action. Encouraging eating, ordering medication, or reviewing past vital signs does not address the need for current assessment.
Question 3 of 5
The treatment protocol for a client with acute lymphatic leukemia includes Orasone (prednisone), Trexall (methotrexate), and Zantac (ranitidine). The purpose of Zantac is to:
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: Zantac (ranitidine) prevents gastric irritation and ulcers, a common side effect of prednisone. It does not affect pancreatic enzymes, methotrexate efficacy, or peristalsis.
Question 4 of 5
The nurse caring for a client receiving intravenous magnesium sulfate must closely observe for side effects associated with drug therapy. An expected side effect of magnesium sulfate is:
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: Hypersomnolence is an expected side effect of magnesium sulfate due to its sedative properties, so B is correct. Decreased urinary output , absence of knee jerk reflex , and decreased respiratory rate are signs of toxicity, not expected effects.
Question 5 of 5
A pregnant client who is at 34 weeks gestation is diagnosed with a pulmonary embolism (PE). Which of these medications would the nurse anticipate the provider ordering?
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: Heparin infusion to maintain the PTT at 1.5-2.5 times the control value. In pregnant women with pulmonary embolism, heparin is preferred over warfarin due to warfarin's teratogenic effects. A continuous heparin infusion is typically used to achieve therapeutic anticoagulation, monitored by maintaining the PTT at 1.5-2.5 times the control value.