NCLEX-PN
NCLEX Trainer Test 1 Questions
Extract:
Question 1 of 5
The treatment protocol for a client with acute lymphatic leukemia includes Orasone (prednisone), Trexall (methotrexate), and Zantac (ranitidine). The purpose of Zantac is to:
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: Zantac (ranitidine) prevents gastric irritation and ulcers, a common side effect of prednisone. It does not affect pancreatic enzymes, methotrexate efficacy, or peristalsis.
Extract:
A 30-year-old woman is receiving levothyroxine sodium (Synthroid) 0.1 mg PO daily.
Question 2 of 5
Which of the following findings would indicate to the nurse that the client is getting favorable results from the medication?
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: Strategy: Determine how each answer choice relates to hypothyroidism. (1) characteristic of hypothyroidism, would indicate that medication is not working (2) correct-medication increases metabolic processes of body, including glomerular filtration, edema will decrease as water is excreted (3) characteristic of hypothyroidism, would indicate that medication is not working (4) respiratory rate may or may not be affected by medication
Extract:
Question 3 of 5
The nurse is to insert an indwelling catheter in a male. Which action is appropriate?
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: Washing hands before catheter insertion is critical to maintain a sterile field and prevent infection. Cleansing the meatus occurs after hand washing, a 45-degree angle is incorrect (90 degrees is typical), and the balloon is inflated post-insertion.
Question 4 of 5
An adult is admitted to the emergency room with a laceration on the forearm and BP=140/74, P=110, and R=36. The client also.adult is admitted to the emergency room with a laceration on the forearm and BP=140/74, P=110, and R=36. The client also complains of tingling around the mouth and in the fingers and toes. What should the nurse expect to do initially?
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: Tachypnea and tingling suggest hyperventilation causing respiratory alkalosis; breathing into a paper bag restores CO2 levels, correcting pH.
Question 5 of 5
The nurse is caring for a client in the outpatient clinic who is four months pregnant.
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: Intermittent nausea in the second trimester (four months) is abnormal, as morning sickness typically resolves by the end of the first trimester, and may indicate complications like hyperemesis gravidarum or other issues requiring evaluation. Vaginal discharge, breast tenderness, and frequent urination are normal pregnancy symptoms.