NCLEX-RN
NCLEX-RN Exam Practice Questions
Extract:
Question 1 of 5
The sputum of a client remains positive for the tubercle bacillus even though the client has been taking Laniazid (isoniazid) in combination with other antituberculars. The nurse recognizes that the client taking isoniazid should have a negative sputum culture within:
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: Effective antitubercular therapy, including isoniazid, typically results in a negative sputum culture within three months, indicating control of active infection.
Question 2 of 5
A client has ataxia following a cerebral vascular accident. The nurse should:
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: Ataxia post-stroke causes unsteady gait, increasing fall risk. Supervising ambulation ensures safety. Intake/output, speech therapy, and writing aids are unrelated to ataxia.
Question 3 of 5
A client with type 2 diabetes is prescribed metformin (Glucophage). Which statement by the client indicates a need for further teaching?
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: Stopping metformin abruptly (
C) can worsen glycemic control, indicating a need for further teaching. Taking with meals (
A), monitoring sugar (
B), and reporting muscle pain (
D) are correct.
Question 4 of 5
The nurse is caring for a client following a right nephrolithotomy. Post-operatively, the client should be positioned:
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: Positioning on the left side helps reduce pressure on the surgical site (right kidney) and promotes drainage and comfort post-nephrolithotomy.
Question 5 of 5
The nurse at a college campus is preparing to medicate several students who have been exposed to meningococcal meningitis.Which would the nurse most likely administer?
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: Ciprofloxacin is a fluoroquinolone antibiotic recommended for post-exposure prophylaxis in meningococcal meningitis due to its effectiveness against Neisseria meningitidis. Ampicillin, Vancomycin, and Piperacillin/Tazobactam are not typically used for this purpose.