NCLEX-RN
NCLEX-RN Exam Questions
Extract:
Question 1 of 5
The physician orders medication for a client's unpleasant side effects from the haloperidol. The most appropriate drug at this time is:
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: Lorazepam is a benzodiazepine, or antianxiety agent, that potentiates the effects of -aminobutyric acid in the CNS, which is not the CNS neurotransmitter EPS. Triazolam is a benzodiazepine sedative-hypnotic whose action is mediated in the limbic, thalamic, and hypothalamic levels of the CNS by -aminobutyric acid. Benztropine is an anticholinergic agent, and the drug of choice for blocking CNS synaptic response, which causes EPS. Thiothixene is an antipsychotic and neuroleptic drug that blocks dopamine neurotransmission at the CNS synapses, thereby causing EPS.
Question 2 of 5
A client with cancer who is receiving chemotherapeutic drugs has been given injections of pegfilgastrim (Neulasta). Which laboratory value reveals that the drug is producing the desired effect?
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: Pegfilgastrim stimulates neutrophil production, increasing white blood cell counts. A WBC of 6,000/mm (
B) indicates effectiveness. Hemoglobin (
A), platelets (
C), and hematocrit (
D) are not directly affected.
Question 3 of 5
A client is admitted to the hospital in chronic renal failure. A low protein diet is ordered. The rationale for a low protein diet is that:
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: In chronic renal failure, a low protein diet reduces the production of nitrogenous wastes like blood urea nitrogen (BUN), easing the kidneys’ workload. It does not directly affect sodium, potassium, albumin, calcium, or phosphorus levels.
Question 4 of 5
The amniocentesis reveals that the patient has a high AFP level. The nurse is aware that a high level of AFP is associated with which of the following?
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: High alpha-fetoprotein (AFP) levels in amniotic fluid are associated with neural tube defects such as myelomeningocele (a type of spina bifida). Esophageal atresia omphalocele and Trisomy 21 (Down syndrome) are not typically associated with elevated AFP levels.
Question 5 of 5
A client with a history of pneumonia is admitted with complaints of dyspnea. The nurse should give priority to:
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: Dyspnea in pneumonia indicates impaired gas exchange, so administering oxygen is the priority to improve oxygenation.