NCLEX-RN
NCLEX RN SATA Questions Questions
Extract:
Question 1 of 5
The physician orders I.V. cefazolin (Kefzol) 1g for a client. In preparing to administer the Kefzol, the nurse notes that the client is allergic to penicillin. Based on this information, what is an appropriate action for the nurse to take?
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: Cefazolin, a cephalosporin, has a risk of cross-reactivity in penicillin-allergic clients, so the nurse should notify the physician to consider an alternative. Administering or verifying with the pharmacist without physician consultation is unsafe.
Question 2 of 5
A child with meningococcal meningitis is being admitted to the pediatric unit. In preparation for the child's arrival, the nurse should first?
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: Meningococcal meningitis is transmitted via droplets, so instituting precautions is the priority to prevent spread.
Question 3 of 5
A client with a diagnosis of hyperthyroidism is prescribed propylthiouracil (PTU). The nurse should monitor the client for which of the following side effects?
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: Propylthiouracil can cause agranulocytosis, requiring monitoring of white blood cell counts.
Question 4 of 5
Sertraline is prescribed for a client in the treatment of depression. Before administering the medication, the nurse reviews the client's record and consults with the primary health care provider when which finding is noted?
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: Sertraline is a serotonin reuptake inhibitor. Serious potentially fatal reactions may occur if sertraline is administered concurrently with a monoamine oxidase inhibitor (MAOI). Phenelzine sulfate is an MAOI. MAOIs should be stopped at least 14 days before sertraline therapy. Sertraline should also be stopped at least 14 days before MAOI therapy. The remaining options are not concerns associated with the administration of this medication.
Question 5 of 5
The nurse is assessing a client with a suspected appendicitis. Which of the following findings is most indicative of this condition?
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: Right lower quadrant pain is a hallmark sign of appendicitis due to localized peritoneal irritation.