NCLEX Questions, NCLEX-RN Exam Practice Questions, NCLEX-RN Questions, Nurselytic

Questions 157

NCLEX-RN

Home > NCLEX-RN > NCLEX-RN Exam Practice
NCLEX-RN Test Bank

NCLEX-RN Exam Practice Questions

Extract:


Question 1 of 5

The physician has ordered Amoxil (amoxicillin) 500mg capsules for a client with esophageal varices. The nurse can best care for the client's needs by:

Correct Answer: D

Rationale: Clients with esophageal varices are at risk for bleeding, and swallowing capsules can irritate or rupture varices. Requesting a liquid or IV form of amoxicillin is safer.

Question 2 of 5

A client is admitted with acute adrenal crisis. During the intake assessment, the nurse can expect to find that the client has:

Correct Answer: A

Rationale: Acute adrenal crisis (Addisonian crisis) causes hypotension due to cortisol and aldosterone deficiency, leading to shock. Pulse is typically rapid, skin is cool, and urination decreases.

Question 3 of 5

The physician has ordered a low-purine diet for a client with gout. Which protein source is high in purine?

Correct Answer: A

Rationale: Dried beans are high in purines, which can exacerbate gout by increasing uric acid levels, so they should be avoided on a low-purine diet.

Question 4 of 5

Four days after admission for cirrhosis of the liver, the nurse observes the following when assessing a male client: increased irritability, asterixis, and changes in his speech pattern. Which of the following foods would be appropriate for his bedtime snack?

Correct Answer: A

Rationale: High levels of ammonia, a by-product of protein metabolism, can precipitate metabolic encephalopathy. These clients need a diet high in carbohydrates and bulk. Metabolic encephalopathy of the brain associated with liver failure is precipitated by elevated ammonia levels. Ammonia is a by-product of protein metabolism. (C,
D) Metabolic encephalopathy in liver failure is precipitated by elevated ammonia levels. Ammonia is a by-product of protein metabolism.

Question 5 of 5

The nurse is caring for a client with a diagnosis of gestational trophoblastic disease. Which intervention is most appropriate?

Correct Answer: A

Rationale: Gestational trophoblastic disease requires monitoring hCG levels to assess for resolution or progression to malignancy (e.g. choriocarcinoma).
Tocolytics fetal monitoring and vaginal delivery are not indicated as there is no viable fetus.

Similar Questions

The day following his admission, the nurse sits down by a male client on the sofa in the dayroom. He was admitted for depression and thoughts of suicide. He looks at the nurse and says, 'My life is so bad no one can do anything to help me.' The most helpful initial response by the nurse would be:
A nurse is caring for a client with a myocardial infarction. The nurse recognizes that the most common complication in the client following a myocardial infarction is:
A client with a fractured leg is exhibiting shortness of breath, pain upon deep breathing, and hemoptysis. What do these clinical manifestations indicate to the nurse?
A 70-year-old female client is admitted to the medical intensive care unit with a diagnosis of cerebrovascular accident (CVA). She is semicomatose, responding to pain and change in position. She is unable to speak or cough. In planning her nursing care for the first 24 hours following a CVA, which nursing diagnosis should receive the highest priority?
A client presents to the emergency room with cyanosis, coughing, tachypnea, and tachycardia. She has a history of asthma. Arterial blood gas values are pH 7.28, PaO2 54, PaCO2 60, and HCO3 24. The nursing assessment of arterial blood gases indicate the presence of:

Access More Questions!

NCLEX RN Basic

$89/ 30 days

 

NCLEX RN Premium

$150/ 90 days