NCLEX-PN
NCLEX PN Practice Test with NGN Questions
Extract:
The nurse is caring for a client on the medical-surgical unit.
History
Admission
0500: The client is admitted with an abscess and cellulitis of the right leg. The abscess is noted on the lateral aspect of the right calf, with redness, swelling, and warmth extending from the knee to the ankle. The abscess was incised in the emergency department, and a moderate amount of purulent, yellowish-green drainage was noted. The leg was wrapped with gauze, and the client received the first dose of IV antibiotics and opioids for pain control.
The client reports chronic lower back pain and gastrosophageal reflux disease, and he was admitted to the hospital once last year for gastrointestinal bleeding. He is currently prescribed daily pantoprazole but takes it only a few times a week.
Vital signs: T 100.9 F (38.3 C), P 82, RR 14, BP 130/80, SpO, 95% on room air
Progress Notes
Medical-Surgical Unit
2300:
The client reports nausea, headache, and insomnia. The client is trembling, diaphoretic, and restless.
The client states, "I would sleep better if those mice and cats would stop climbing up and down the walls."
The upper portion of the clients dressing is saturated with yellowish-green drainage. The peripheral V was removed by the client, and dried blood is noted at the IV site. The IV catheter is on the floor. The client yelled and pushed the nurse's hands away during inspection of the IV site.
Vital signs: T 99 F (37.2 C), P 102, RR 18, BP 170/96, SpO≥ 95% on room air
Question 1 of 5
The nurse should contact the health care provider and anticipate prescriptions for.....and.....
Correct Answer: B,D
Rationale: B: Thiamine is given to prevent Wernicke encephalopathy in alcohol withdrawal. D: Lorazepam manages withdrawal symptoms and prevents seizures. Naloxone is for opioid overdose, and haloperidol is not first-line for withdrawal.
Extract:
The nurse is caring for an 82-year-old client in the emergency department.
Nurses' Notes
0930:
The client reports shortness of breath and left-sided chest pain for 2 days. The client fractured the right femoral neck a month ago after a fall and decided against operative management. Since then, the client has been wheelchair dependent and takes acetaminophen for fracture pain management. The client was placed on continuous cardiac monitoring.
History and physical
Body System
Neurological
The client is awake, alert, and oriented to person, place, time, and situation; the client appears anxious
Pulmonary
Vital signs are RR 22, SpOz 89% on room air; bilateral breath sounds are clear; pain increases with inhalation; the client reports shortness of breath for the past 2 days; the client smoked 1 pack of cigarettes per day for 10 years.
Cardiovascular
Vital signs are T 99.8 F (37.7 C), P 110, BP 110/60; S1 and S2 are present; there are no murmurs, redness and edema of the right lower extremity are noted; sinus tachycardia is seen on the monitor, chest pain is reported as 7 on a scale of 0-10
Musculoskeletal
The client has osteoporosis, is wheelchair dependent, and is unable to bear weight on the right leg
Diagnostic Results
CT pulmonary angiography
1030: Pulmonary embolism is confirmed
Lower extremity doppler ultrasound
1100: Deep venous thrombosis is noted in the right lower extremity.
Question 2 of 5
For each finding, click to specify whether the finding indicates that the client's status has improved or declined.
| Finding | Improved | Declined |
|---|---|---|
| HR 90 | ||
| RR 18 | ||
| SpO2 92% on room air | ||
| Decreased platelet count | ||
| Pain rated as 3 on a scale of 0-10 |
Correct Answer: A: Improved; B: Improved; C: Improved; D: Declined; E: Improved
Rationale: A: HR 90 (down from 110) indicates improved cardiovascular stability. B: RR 18 (down from 22) suggests improved respiratory status. C: SpO2 92% (up from 89%) indicates improved oxygenation. D: Decreased platelet count suggests a decline, possibly due to heparin-induced thrombocytopenia. E: Pain rated 3 (down from 7) indicates improved pain control.
Extract:
The nurse is caring for a 52-year-old client on the orthopedic unit.
Nurses' Notes
Postoperative Day 1
0900:
The client's left leg was placed in balanced suspension skeletal traction for a fractured femur 12 hours ago. The client is positioned supine in the center of the bed with the foot of the bed elevated 15 degrees. Traction ropes are free of frays, centered in the pulleys, and moving freely with attached weights resting on the bed frame.
Serous drainage noted around the pin sites. Left foot slightly cool to the touch with posterior tibial and dorsalis pedis pulses palpable at 2+ and capillary refill <2 seconds in the toes. Client has normal sensation and movement of the left toes. Client rates left leg pain as 8 on a scale of 0-10.
Vital signs are T 100.4 F (38 C), P 110, RR 18, and BP 132/68. Weight is 173 lb (78.5 kg).
Question 3 of 5
The nurse recognizes that improperly maintained skeletal traction may lead to........ and.....
Correct Answer: C,D
Rationale: Improperly maintained traction can cause increased pain (
C) and bone malunion (
D) due to misalignment or inadequate stabilization.
Extract:
The practical nurse is assisting the registered nurse with the care of a 58-year-old client in the emergency department.
Nurses' Notes
Initial Clinic Visit
The client monitors blood pressure (BP) at home and reports that it has been elevated for the past month. BP is 157/92 mm Hg. Physical examination is normal. The client is prescribed a thiazide diuretic for hypertension.
Emergency Department 4 Weeks Later
The client reports muscle weakness and severe cramping in the lower extremities with increased lethargy over the past 3 days. BP is 123/75 mm Hg. Physical examination findings include 1+ deep tendon reflexes bilaterally.
Question 4 of 5
The nurse recognizes that the client is most likely experiencing.......... and, without prompt intervention, is at risk for...........
Correct Answer: A,F
Rationale: The client is most likely experiencing hypokalemia and, without prompt intervention, is at risk for cardiac dysrhythmias. Thiazide diuretics can cause potassium loss, leading to muscle weakness, cramping, and lethargy. Low potassium levels can disrupt cardiac electrical activity, risking dysrhythmias.
Extract:
The nurse is caring for a 12-month-old male client.
History and Physical
Body System
General
The client is brought to the emergency department by the parents due to increased leg bruising and left knee swelling for 1 day; the parents report that the client seems more tired and less playful; both parents and the sister are healthy, but a maternal uncle died at age 7 after mild head trauma.
Integumentary
Good hygiene; no abrasions; no burns; bilateral scattered lower extremity bruising
Eye, Ear, Nose, and Throat (EENT)
The parents report that the client's gums have been bleeding when chewing on crackers
Pulmonary
Vital signs: RR 38, SpO 100% on room air, upper respiratory infection 3 weeks ago that completely resolved after 4 days.
Cardiovascular
Vital signs: T 98.7 F (37.1 C), P 136
Musculoskeletal
Left knee redness and swelling with limited range of motion; the client can bear weight on both lower extremities; the parents state the child has recently started learning to walk by holding onto furniture and sometimes falls
Genitourinary
The parents state that urine output has been normal; urine is clear and pale yellow; the penis is uncircumcised
Psychosocial
The client is cooperative during examination; the client appears appropriately dressed for the season and weather; the mother says the child has no interest in toilet-training.
Laboratory Results.
Laboratory Test and Reference Range
Hematology.
Hematocrit
1-6 years: 39% (0.39)
30%-40%:
(0.30-0.40)
WBC
<_ 2 years: 8000/mm3 (8.0 × 10%/L)
6200-17,000/mm3
(6.2-17.0 × 10°/L)
Platelets
150,000-400,000/mm3: 163,000/mm3 (163 × 10°/L)
(150-400 × 10°/L)
aPTT (Activated partial thromboplastin time)
30-40 sec: 60 sec
PT
11-12.5 sec: 12 sec
Factor VIII
55%-145%: 6%
Factor IX
60%-140%: 100%
Question 5 of 5
The client is most likely experiencing......... due to.......
Correct Answer: A,E
Rationale: The client is most likely experiencing hemophilia due to deficiency of clotting factors. Laboratory results show low Factor VIII (6%) and prolonged aPTT (60 sec), consistent with hemophilia A. The family history and symptoms like bruising and joint swelling further support this diagnosis.