NCLEX-PN
NCLEX PN Test Questions with NGN Questions
Extract:
The nurse is caring for a 64-year-old client.
History and Physical
Body System, Findings
General ,
The client reports a 24-hour history of blurred vision and redness in the left eye with a left-sided headache.
This evening, the client developed acute, severe pain in the left eye accompanied by occasional nausea and
vomiting. The client reports no use of systemic or topical eye medications. Medical history includes
osteoarthritis and hypercholesterolemia.
Eye, Ear, Nose, and Throat (EENT),
The client wears eyeglasses to correct farsighted vision. Right eye: pupil 2 mm and reactive to light,
conjunctiva clear. Left eye: pupil 4 mm and nonreactive to light with red conjunctiva. Bilateral lens opacity is noted.
Pulmonary,
Vital signs are RR 20 and SpO, 96% on room air. The lungs are clear to auscultation bilaterally.
Cardiovascular,
Vital signs are T 99 F (37.2 C), P 88, and BP 140/82.
Psychosocial,
The client reports a great deal of emotional stress following the recent death of the client's spouse that is accompanied by lack of sleep, poor appetite, and a 7.9-lb (3.6-kg) weight loss within the past month. The client takes diphenhydramine for sleep.
Question 1 of 5
The nurse reinforces discharge teaching to the client after laser peripheral iridotomy. Which of the following client statements indicate an understanding of the teaching? Select all that apply.
Correct Answer: A,B,C,D,E
Rationale: Laser peripheral iridotomy is a surgical intervention for acute angle-closure glaucoma (ACG) that involves creating a small hole in the iris to
prevent the drainage pathway from closing and improve movement of aqueous humor into regular outflow channels. Ophthalmic alpha-
adrenergic agonists (eg, apraclonidine, brimonidine) are administered postoperatively to reduce aqueous humor production and prevent an
elevation in intraocular pressure.
Important considerations for the administration of ophthalmic drops include:
• Pulling the lower eyelid down by gently pressing on the lower orbital bone to expose the conjunctival sac (Option 1)
• Applying pressure over the inner corner of the eye (eg, lacrimal duct) after each medication to avoid systemic absorption (Option 2)
• Waiting at least 5 minutes before instilling a different medication into the same eye to allow absorption of the first medication and to
avoid overflow with multiple drops (Option 4)
• Holding the dropper ½*% in (1-2 cm) above the conjunctival sac to prevent contamination of the dropper and infection of the eye
(Option 5)
Clients should also be instructed to consult with their health care provider before taking over-the-counter medications (eg, decongestants,
anticholinergics, antihistamines) because a subsequent episode of acute ACG may be triggered by certain medications (Option 3).
Extract:
History
Labor and Delivery Unit
Admission: The client, gravida 1 para 0, at 16 weeks gestation with a twin pregnancy reports nausea and vomiting for the past
several weeks. The client also reports dry heaving, increasing weakness, light-headedness, and an inability to tolerate
oral intake for the past 24 hours. In addition, the client has had occasional right-sided, shooting pain from the abdomen
to the groin that occurs with sudden position changes. The pain quickly resolves without intervention per the client's
report. She has had no contractions or vaginal bleeding and has felt no fetal movement during this pregnancy. The
client has a history of childhood asthma and is currently taking no asthma medications. The client reports no other
pregnancy complications.
Physical
Prepregnancy,12 Weeks Gestation 16 Weeks Gestation(Prenatal Visit),(Labor and Delivery Admission)
Height ,5 ft 5 in (165.1 cm),5 ft 5 in (165.1 cm)|, 5 ft 5 in (165.1 cm)
Weight, 145 lb (65.8 kg),148 lb (67.1 kg),138 lb (62.6 kg)
BMI, 24.1 kg/m2, 24.6 kg/m2,23.0 kg/m2
Vital Signs
12 Weeks Gestation(Prenatal Visit),16 Weeks Gestation(Labor and Delivery Admission)
T,98.7 F (37.1 C),99.8 F (37.7 C)
P,70,101
RR,14,18
BP,122/78,90/55
SpO2,99% on room air,96% on room air
Question 2 of 5
Which of the following information about the client is important to report to the health care provider? Select all that apply.
Correct Answer: A,C,E
Rationale: The nurse caring for pregnant clients must distinguish pregnancy-related adaptations and discomforts from potential complications. It is
important to report the following client findings to the health care provider:
• Abnormal vital signs (eg, low blood pressure): Hypotension and tachycardia may be symptoms of hypovolemia due to decreased oral
intake and vomiting (ie, dehydration)
• Severe nausea and vomiting: Although these findings are common discomforts associated with early pregnancy, concern is warranted
if they are persistent; prevent oral intake; and cause significant weight loss, dehydration, and hypovolemia
• Significant weight change (eg, weight loss of 25% of prepregnancy weight): Weight loss is generally not recommended during
pregnancy and may indicate a medical condition (eg, nutritional deficiency). Normal changes in weight during pregnancy include gaining
1-4 Ib (0.5-1.8 kg) during the first trimester and approximately 1 lb (0.5 kg) per week thereafter
Extract:
The nurse is caring for a 20-year-old female client.
Nurses' Notes
Urgent Care Clinic
0845: The parent brought the client to the clinic due to vomiting and weakness. The parent states that the client has experienced
sore throat and nasal congestion for the past week. The client has had 4 episodes of emesis during the past 24 hours and
diffuse, constant abdominal pain. The parent also reports that the client has had increased thirst and urine output over the
past 2 months.
The client's last menstrual period ended approximately 6 weeks ago with no abnormalities. Pregnancy status is unknown. The
client does not take any medications and does not use tobacco, alcohol, or recreational substances. Family history includes
hypertension and diabetes mellitus.
The client appears drowsy and is oriented to person and time only. The abdomen is soft without rigidity or rebound
tenderness, and bowel sounds are normal. No blood is present in emesis. Respirations are rapid and deep. Breath sounds
are clear.
Vital signs are T 98.8 F (37.1 C), P 128, RR 30, and BP 88/60 mm Hg.
Finger-stick blood glucose level is 600 mg/dL (33.3 mmol/L).
Question 3 of 5
For each potential finding below, click to specify if the finding is consistent with the disease process of diabetic ketoacidosis, ruptured appendix, or ruptured ectopic pregnancy. Each finding may support more than one disease process.
Finding | Diabetic ketoacidosis | Ruptured appendix | Ruptured ectopic pregnancy |
---|---|---|---|
Polyuria | |||
Vomiting | |||
Tachypnea | |||
Tachycardia | |||
Hyperglycemia | |||
Abdominal pain |
Correct Answer:
Rationale: Diabetic ketoacidosis (DK
A) is a complication of diabetes mellitus that results from lack of insulin. Insulin is required to transport glucose
into cells for energy, which means that lack of insulin leads to intracellular starvation despite the high level of glucose circulating in the blood
(hyperglycemia). Physiologic responses to hyperglycemia include osmotic diuresis (polyuria) for reduction of blood glucose levels and
breakdown of fat into acidic ketone bodies for energy. This leads to states of dehydration (as evidenced by tachycardia), electrolyte
imbalance, and metabolic acidosis. Ketoacidosis leads to tachypnea and deep respirations (Kussmaul respirations), as well as abdominal
pain and vomiting.
Appendicitis is an inflammation of the appendix often resulting from obstruction by fecal matter. Appendiceal obstruction traps colonic fluid
and mucus, causing increased intraluminal pressure and inflammation. This impairs perfusion of the appendix, resulting in swelling and
ischemia. Clinical manifestations include fever, abdominal pain, rebound abdominal tenderness, tachycardia, nausea, and vomiting.
Abdominal pain usually begins near the umbilicus and migrates to the right lower quadrant (eg, McBurney point). Tachypnea, as well as a
compensatory response, can be present, especially if there is a ruptured appendix or evidence of sepsis causing lactic acidosis (metabolic
acidosis).
Extract:
History and Physical
Body System
Findings
General
Client reports a 1-week history of general malaise, fever and chills, night sweats, fatigue, and
poor appetite. Client has poorly controlled hypertension, hypercholesterolemia, and mitral
valve prolapse and regurgitation.
Eye, Ear, Nose, and
Throat (EENT)
Poor dental hygiene. Client reports having 2 teeth extracted 3 weeks ago.
Pulmonary
Vital signs are RR 18 and SpO, 96% on room air. Lungs are clear to auscultation bilaterally.
Cardiovascular
Vital signs are T 100.4 F (38 C), P 105, and BP 140/82. Sinus tachycardia with occasional
premature ventricular contractions on cardiac monitor. S1 and S2 heard on auscultation with
loud systolic murmur at the apex. Peripheral pulses 2+; no edema noted.
Integumentary
Small, erythematous macular lesions on both palms. Thin, brown longitudinal lines on several
nail beds.
Question 4 of 5
The nurse is preparing to administer the first dose of the prescribed IVPB antibiotic. Which 2 actions are most appropriate for the nurse to perform prior to initiating the infusion?
Correct Answer: B,C
Rationale: Antibiotic therapy is a critical component of treatment for clients with infective endocarditis (E). Before administering IV
antibiotics, the nurse should first obtain blood cultures to identify the infectious organism. Broad-spectrum antibiotics are
started initially. Targeted antibiotic therapy can be administered once the blood cultures identify the culprit organisms and their
antimicrobial susceptibilities. Before starting any medication, the nurse should ask about the client's medication allergies to
identify contraindications to therapy
Extract:
The nurse is performing a home health visit for an 84-year-old male.
History and Physical
Body System, Findings
General,
Client reports a 1-month-long history of fatigue and dyspnea that has worsened; he is unable to lie
flat and sleeps in a chair at night, medical history includes myocardial infarction, chronic heart
failure, chronic obstructive pulmonary disease, hypertension, and type 2 diabetes mellitus; client
was diagnosed with benign prostatic hyperplasia 8 months ago; client is adherent with prescribed
medications; client reports frequent consumption of donuts, hamburgers, steak, and fried chicken;
BMI is 34 kg/m?; client reports 6-Ib (2.7-kg) weight gain in 1 week
Neurological,
Alert and oriented to person, place, time, and situation
Pulmonary,
Vital signs: RR 24, SpOz 88% on room air; labored breathing, crackles in bilateral lung bases; client
expectorates frothy, pink-tinged sputum; client has a 40-year history of smoking 1 pack of cigarettes
per day
Cardiovascular,
Vital signs: T 98.8 F (37.1 C), P 98, BP 113/92; S1, S2, and S3 present; 3+ bilateral lower extremity
edema
Genitourinary, Concentrated yellow urine; client reports increased urinary hesitancy and urgency
Psychosocial,
Client reports being lonely and has depressed mental status
Question 5 of 5
Select 5 findings that require further investigation.
Correct Answer: A,B,D,E
Rationale: A client with chronic heart failure (HF) who reports worsening fatigue, dyspnea, orthopnea, and peripheral edema is likely
experiencing declining oxygenation due to fluid volume overload. Assessment findings that require further investigation
include:
• Orthopnea: Labored breathing in the supine position is a common manifestation in clients with HF due to pulmonary
edema. Clients with orthopnea often sleep on a chair or on propped-up pillows to decrease work of breathing.
Paroxysmal nocturnal dyspnea, which is waking up in the middle of the night with suffocation due to dyspnea, is another
characteristic finding in HF.
• Crackles on auscultation: Crackles are a manifestation of pulmonary edema caused by fluid in the alveoli. Pulmonary
edema is concerning for worsening HF and impaired gas exchange.
• Peripheral edema and rapid weight gain (ie, >5 Ib/week [2.3 kg/week]): These symptoms are concerning for fluid
volume overload
• Hypoxemia: Decreased capillary oxygen saturation (SpO, <95%) is a sign of inadequate gas exchange. This is most
likely related to pulmonary edema from HF exacerbation.