NCLEX Questions, NCLEX Trainer Test 8 Questions, NCLEX-PN Qu

Extract:

An arthritic client must be able to perform tasks to manage at home alone following discharge from the hospital.

Question 1 of 5

The nurse knows that to manage at home alone following discharge from the hospital, an arthritic client must be able to perform which of the following tasks?

Correct Answer: C

Rationale: Strategy: Think about the significance of each answer choice and how it relates to arthritis. (1) stairs can be eliminated in the client's environment (2) is a modifiable problem with the use of slip-on shoes (3) correct-is part of basic hygiene and grooming that must be done daily to maintain overall health (4) is not necessary for independence; walker or wheelchair may be used

Extract:

A disoriented male client reveals that the client has a self-care deficit (feeding).

Question 2 of 5

Which of the following would indicate to the nurse that the client has made a positive response to the plan of care?

A. Client explains the relationship between weight loss and change in mental status. B. Client identifies the basic four food groups. C. Client states he needs to drink more water. D. Client feeds self when the nurse stays with him and cues him.

Correct Answer: D

Rationale: Strategy: Determine the outcome of each answer choice. (1) would not be realistic in a client who is disoriented (2) would not be realistic in a client who is disoriented (3) would not be realistic in a client who is disoriented (4) correct-disoriented client who is not able to be an independent self-care agent will need cuing from the nurse to accomplish self-feeding

Extract:

Question 3 of 5

A client has an order for D5NS 1,000 mL to infuse over 8 hours. The IV set delivers 10 drops per mL. The nurse should maintain the infusion rate at:

Your Answer:

Correct Answer: C

Rationale: Calculate: 1,000 mL / 8 hours = 125 mL/hour. 125 mL/hour Ã— 10 drops/mL Ã· 60 minutes = 20.83 drops/minute, rounded to 21 drops/minute.

Question 4 of 5

The nurse observes a LPN/LVN perform a wet-to-dry dressing change on a 2-inch abdominal incision.

A. Which behavior by the LPN/LVN indicates proper wet-to-dry dressing change technique? B. A clean cotton ball is used to cleanse from the top of the incision to the bottom of the incision using long strokes. C. The incision is packed with sterile gauze, and then sterile saline is poured over the dressing. D. The nurse packs wet gauze into the incision without overlapping it onto the skin. E. The old dressing is saturated with sterile saline before it is removed.

Correct Answer: C

Rationale: Packing wet gauze into the incision without overlapping onto the skin prevents skin breakdown from prolonged moisture exposure. Cleansing should be from the center outward, dressings should be pre-soaked, and old dressings are removed dry to debride the wound.

Question 5 of 5

The nurse is planning care for a client who had surgery for an ileal conduit two days ago. It is MOST important for the nurse to take which of the following actions?

A. Remove the appliance regularly and clean the skin with antiseptic solution. B. Apply a close-fitting drainage bag to the stoma. C. Massage the skin around the stoma with an emollient. D. Expose the area around the stoma to air twice a day.

Correct Answer: B

Rationale: A close-fitting drainage bag prevents urine leakage, protecting skin integrity post-ileal conduit. Options A, C, and D risk skin irritation or bag adhesion issues.