NCLEX Questions, NCLEX Trainer Test 8 Questions, NCLEX-PN Qu

Extract:

Question 1 of 5

The nurse is teaching a parent about side effects of routine immunizations. Which of the following must be reported immediately?

Correct Answer: D

Rationale: Seizure activity. Other reactions that should be reported include crying for >3 hours, temperature over 104.8 degrees Fahrenheit following DPT immunization, and tender, swollen, reddened areas.

Question 2 of 5

The nurse is caring for a client with a history of diabetic ketoacidosis.

A. Which intervention is most important for a client with diabetic ketoacidosis? B. Administer insulin as ordered. C. Restrict all oral fluids. D. Administer oral glucose. E. Monitor blood pressure every 4 hours.

Correct Answer: A

Rationale: Insulin administration corrects hyperglycemia and ketosis in diabetic ketoacidosis, the primary treatment. IV fluids are used, oral glucose is contraindicated, and blood pressure monitoring is less frequent.

Question 3 of 5

The nurse is teaching a client with a new diagnosis of osteoporosis about alendronate (Fosamax). Which of the following instructions should the nurse include?

A. Take the medication with milk. B. Remain upright for 30 minutes after taking. C. Stop the medication if bone density improves. D. Avoid regular bone density Test s.

Correct Answer: B

Rationale: Remaining upright for 30 minutes prevents esophageal irritation from alendronate. Options A, C, and D are incorrect.

Question 4 of 5

The nurse notes dark red blood and a few clots in the catheter of a client two days after a transurethral prostatectomy (TURP). The nurse should first:

A. Prepare the client for a return to surgery. B. Apply traction to the urethral catheter. C. Document the findings as normal. D. Decrease the client's oral fluid intake.

Correct Answer: B

Rationale: The appearance of dark red blood with a few clots indicates a venous bleed. Traction to the urethral catheter and increasing the client's fluid intake should be tried first before calling the doctor. Answer A would be indicated for the client with an arterial bleed, which is characterized by the appearance of bright red blood and many clots in the catheter, so it is incorrect.

Question 5 of 5

A 48-year-old woman is seen in the outpatient clinic for complaints of irregular menses.

A. What is the most probable cause of irregular menses in a 48-year-old woman with a history of regular periods? B. Emotional trauma and stress. C. The onset of menopause. D. The presence of uterine fibroids. E. A possible tubal pregnancy.

Correct Answer: B

Rationale: Irregular menses in a 48-year-old woman is most likely due to menopause, as ovarian function declines between ages 45- Stress lacks supporting data, fibroids cause excessive bleeding, and tubal pregnancy typically presents with missed periods and pain.