NCLEX-PN
NCLEX PN Prep Questions Questions
Extract:
Question 1 of 5
The nurse is reviewing the medical record for an adolescent client with major depressive disorder. Which of the following findings would be consistent with the condition? Select all that apply.
Correct Answer: A,B,C,D
Rationale: Excessive sleep, irritability (outbursts), weight loss, and loss of interest in activities (quitting sports) are hallmarks of depression. Acne concern is typical adolescent behavior, not specific to depression.
Question 2 of 5
The nurse has reinforced teaching with a client who has anxiety and a new prescription for alprazolam. Which of the following statements by the client would indicate a correct understanding of the teaching?
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: Alprazolam is a benzodiazepine, and its use during pregnancy can pose risks to the fetus. Discontinuing and notifying the provider is critical. Muscle relaxants may enhance sedation, skipping doses disrupts therapeutic levels, and dietary restrictions like avoiding tyramine are not required for alprazolam.
Question 3 of 5
Which statements made by the client demonstrate a correct understanding of the home care of an ascending colostomy? Select all that apply.
Correct Answer: A,C
Rationale: Enteric-coated medications may not dissolve properly in an ascending colostomy due to shorter intestinal transit time, requiring provider consultation. Limiting odor-causing foods like broccoli helps manage odor. Irrigation is typically for descending/sigmoid colostomies, not ascending. Fluid intake should be adequate (not restricted), and pouches should be emptied when one-third to half full to prevent leaks.
Question 4 of 5
The nurse is teaching a client about communicable diseases and explains that a portal of entry is:
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: The path by which a microorganism enters the body is the portal of entry. A vector is a carrier of disease, a source (like bad water or food) can be a reservoir of disease.
Extract:
Laboratory results
Glucose (fasting)
70-110 mg/dL
(3.9-6.1 mmol/L)
180 mg/dL
(10.0 mmol/L)
Question 5 of 5
The nurse is preparing to administer insulin aspart subcutaneously at 0700 to a client with type 1 diabetes mellitus. Which of following actions would be a priority for the nurse to take?
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: Insulin aspart is rapid-acting, peaking within 1-3 hours. Administering it at 0700 requires breakfast within 15 minutes to prevent hypoglycemia. Site selection is routine, rechecking glucose later is secondary, and teaching is not urgent.