NCLEX-PN
NCLEX PN Test Questions Questions
Extract:
Question 1 of 5
The nurse is reinforcing teaching on self-administering ophthalmic lubricating ointment medication to a client with newly diagnosed Sjogren's syndrome. Which client statement indicates the need for further teaching?
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: Rubbing the eyes after applying ointment (
A) can cause irritation or displace the medication, indicating a need for further teaching. The other statements (B, C,
D) reflect correct administration techniques.
Question 2 of 5
Which of these clients, all of whom have the findings of a board-like abdomen, would the nurse suggest that the provider examine first?
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: An elderly client who stated, 'My awful pain in my right side suddenly stopped about 3 hours ago.' This client has the highest risk for hypovolemic and septic shock since the appendix has most likely ruptured, based on the history of the pain suddenly stopping over three hours ago. Elderly clients have less functional reserve for the body to cope with shock and infection over long periods. The others are at risk for shock also, however given that they fall in younger age groups, they would more likely be able to tolerate an imbalance in circulation. A common complication of falling off a bicycle is hitting the handle bars in the upper abdomen often on the left, resulting in a ruptured spleen.
Question 3 of 5
The nurse is preparing to take a toddler's blood pressure for the first time. Which of the following actions should the nurse perform first?
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: Permit handling the equipment before putting the cuff in place. The best way to gain the toddler's cooperation is to encourage handling the equipment. Detailed explanations are not helpful.
Question 4 of 5
A 78-year-old client is admitted following a cerebrovascular accident. He cannot move his left arm and leg. Which finding would indicate to the nurse that the client also has homonymous hemianopia?
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: Homonymous hemianopia, a visual field defect from right brain stroke, causes left-sided vision loss, so the client misses the nurse on the left, unlike arm movement, swallowing, or speech issues.
Question 5 of 5
A client complains of some discomfort after a below the knee amputation. Which action by the nurse is most appropriate initially?
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: Ensure that the stump is elevated the first day post-op. This priority intervention prevents pressure caused by pooling of blood, thus minimizing the pain. Without this measure, a firm elastic bandage, opioid narcotics, or guided imagery will have little effect. Opioid narcotics are given for severe pain.