NCLEX-PN
NCLEX PN Practice Test Questions
Extract:
Question 1 of 5
The nurse is reinforcing discharge teaching with the parent of a 6-year-old client who had a tonsillectomy 4 hours ago. The nurse should reinforce that it would be a priority to notify the health care provider if the client experiences
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: Frequent swallowing (
C) may indicate bleeding, a serious post-tonsillectomy complication requiring immediate reporting. Ear pain (
A), bad breath (
B), and low-grade fever (
D) are common and less urgent.
Question 2 of 5
The nurse is talking with a client with macular degeneration. Which of the following statements by the client would be consistent with the condition?
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: Macular degeneration affects central vision, causing a blurry or dark spot in the visual field, as described in (
C), due to damage to the macula. Flashes of light (
A) suggest retinal issues, peripheral vision loss (
B) is typical of glaucoma, and difficulty reading up close (
D) relates to presbyopia.
Question 3 of 5
The nurse is reviewing medical histories with several clients during a community health screening event. Which of the following client statements indicate a risk factor for cervical cancer? Select all that apply.
Correct Answer: A,B,D,E
Rationale: Cervical cancer is strongly linked to HPV infection (E), which is transmitted through sexual activity, including with multiple partners (
A). Smoking (
B) increases risk by impairing immune response to HPV. Chlamydia (
D) is associated with chronic inflammation, increasing susceptibility. Condom use (
C) reduces but does not eliminate HPV risk and is not a direct risk factor.
Question 4 of 5
The nurse is preparing to administer the fourth dose of vancomycin IVPB to a client with infective endocarditis. Which intervention should the nurse anticipate?
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: Vancomycin requires therapeutic drug monitoring to ensure efficacy and prevent toxicity. Obtaining a serum trough level 15-30 minutes before the fourth dose (
D) is standard to guide dosing adjustments. A new IV line (
A) is unnecessary unless the current line is compromised. Antiemetics (
B) are not routinely needed. Infusion over 60 minutes (
C) is typical to prevent red man syndrome, not 30 minutes.
Question 5 of 5
While caring for a woman who delivered a healthy term infant six hours ago, the nurse notes that the fundus is soft, 2 cm above the umbilicus, and off to the left. The lochia is red. The nurse suspects that the client has which problem?
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: A soft, displaced fundus suggests urinary retention, causing bladder pressure on the uterus. Normal involution shows a firm, midline fundus; fragments or lacerations present differently.