NCLEX-PN
NCLEX Trainer Test 9 Questions
Extract:
Question 1 of 5
The nurse is providing home care to a 78-year-old woman who has early dementia. The client tells the nurse, 'My daughter is mean to me.' What should the nurse do initially?
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: The client's statement is very vague and needs to be clarified. Initially, the nurse should ask the client what the daughter does to her that is mean. Examples of behavior are important in evaluating whether the client is the victim of abuse or whether the client's dementia is affecting her perceptions. The nurse does not have enough data at this point to report the client's claim. Initially the nurse should clarify the accusation with the client. After doing that, it would be appropriate to discuss the issue with the daughter.
Question 2 of 5
An adult is hospitalized for heart failure. Hydrochlorothiazide and digoxin are prescribed. What laboratory test(s) should the nurse monitor because the client is taking these medications?
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: Hydrochlorothiazide and digoxin can cause electrolyte imbalances (e.g., hypokalemia), increasing digoxin toxicity risk, necessitating serum electrolyte monitoring.
Question 3 of 5
The nurse is caring for a client with a history of Cushing’s syndrome.
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: Moon face and truncal obesity result from cortisol excess in Cushing’s syndrome. Weight loss, hypotension, and polyuria are more typical of Addison’s disease or diabetes insipidus.
Extract:
During the physical assessment, the nurse determines the need to perform the bulge Test .
Question 4 of 5
Which of the following statements, if made by the nurse, is BEST?
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: Strategy: Think about each answer choice. (1) correct-bulge Test confirms presence of fluid in the knee; client's leg should be extended and supported on the bed (2) observing curve of spine; scoliosis will cause lateral curve in the spine (3) unrelated to knee examination (4) Test s articulation of elbow
Extract:
Question 5 of 5
A 66-year-old woman is being evaluated for pernicious anemia. Which assessment findings would be most apt to be present in a client with pernicious anemia?
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: Pernicious anemia, due to vitamin B12 deficiency, often causes neurological symptoms like leg pain or paresthesia. Bruising, rashes, or pruritus are less specific to this condition.