NCLEX-RN
NCLEX RN Practice Questions
Extract:
Question 1 of 5
The nurse is providing dietary instructions to the mother of an 8-year-old child diagnosed with celiac disease. Which of the following foods, if selected by the mother, would indicate her understanding of the dietary instructions?
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: A cheese omelet is gluten-free, suitable for celiac disease, unlike the other options containing wheat.
Question 2 of 5
The nurse has an order to administer a heparin drip at 12 units/kg/hr. The client weighs 178 pounds. The heparin is available as 25,000 units in 500 mL D5W. At which rate should the nurse program the pump?
Correct Answer: 11.3
Rationale: Weight: 178 lbs ÷ 2.2 = 80.91 kg. Dose: 80.91 × 12 = 970.92 units/hr. Concentration: 25,000 units ÷ 500 mL = 50 units/mL. Rate: 970.92 ÷ 50 = 19.42 mL/hr (rounded to 19.4 mL/hr).
Question 3 of 5
A 60-year-old client has undergone a nerve-sparing prostatectomy and has been advised by his physician that he may not recover normal sexual functioning. The client is very concerned about this and asks the nurse for more information. Which of the following information should the nurse include? Select all that apply.
Correct Answer: A,B,D,E
Rationale: Post-prostatectomy, retrograde ejaculation (
A), variable recovery time (
B), avoiding intercourse for 1 month (
D), and anxiety's impact (E) are relevant. Recovery within a month (
C) is incorrect, and prioritizing other intimacy (F) is subjective.
Question 4 of 5
Following a lumbar puncture, a client develops a severe headache that persists 24 hours and is unrelieved by bedrest or oral fluids. Which of the following interventions does the nurse anticipate?
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: A persistent post-lumbar puncture headache suggests CSF leak, treated with an epidural blood patch (
C). Prolonged bedrest (
A), opioids (
B), or IV fluids (
D) are less effective.
Question 5 of 5
A client returns from surgery with a total knee replacement. Which of the following findings requires immediate nursing intervention?
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: A CPM set at 90° flexion immediately post-knee replacement is excessive and could damage the surgical site, requiring immediate adjustment.