NCLEX-PN
NCLEX PN Prep Questions Questions
Extract:
Question 1 of 5
The nurse is preparing to administer phenytoin oral suspension via nasogastric tube to a client with a seizure disorder. The client is receiving continuous enteral feedings. Which of the following actions should the nurse take?
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: Phenytoin binds to enteral feedings, reducing absorption. Holding feedings for 1 hour before and after administration ensures efficacy. Tube placement should be verified before, not after, administration. Blood pressure and pancreatic enzymes are unrelated.
Question 2 of 5
The nurse is caring for a bedridden client experiencing fecal incontinence. Which nursing intervention is the highest priority for this client?
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: Perianal skin care with barrier cream prevents skin breakdown, a common complication of fecal incontinence. Wound care consultation follows if breakdown occurs. Rectal tubes risk complications, and briefs may trap moisture, worsening irritation.
Question 3 of 5
The nurse is reviewing discharge instructions with a client going home on linezolid therapy for a vancomycin-resistant enterococcus infection. Which client statement requires further teaching?
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: Linezolid interacts with SSRIs like paroxetine, risking serotonin syndrome, requiring a washout period. Acetaminophen is safe, tyramine avoidance prevents hypertensive crises, and reporting fever/diarrhea monitors treatment response.
Question 4 of 5
During an assessment of a client with cardiomyopathy, the nurse finds that the systolic blood pressure has decreased from 145 to 110 mm Hg and the heart rate has risen from 72 to 96 beats per minute and the client complains of periodic dizzy spells. The nurse instructs the client to
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: Postural hypotension, a decrease in systolic blood pressure of more than 15 mm Hg and an increase in heart rate of more than 15 percent usually accompanied by dizziness indicates volume depletion, inadequate vasoconstrictor mechanisms, and autonomic insufficiency.
Question 5 of 5
A client with type 2 diabetes, coronary artery disease, and peripheral arterial disease developed hospital-acquired pneumonia (HAP) and has been receiving intravenous (IV) antibiotics for 4 days. Which parameter monitored by the nurse best indicates the effectiveness of treatment?
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: A decreasing WBC count indicates resolving infection, as HAP elevates WBCs. Sputum color is unreliable, lung sounds improve later, and oxygen saturation reflects oxygenation, not infection status.