NCLEX-RN
NCLEX-RN Exam Practice Questions
Extract:
Question 1 of 5
The nurse is preparing to administer a dose of nitroglycerin sublingual to a client with chest pain. Which instruction should be given to the client?
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: Nitroglycerin sublingual tablets are placed under the tongue to dissolve, allowing rapid absorption to relieve angina. Swallowing, chewing, or taking with milk reduces effectiveness or delays onset.
Question 2 of 5
The nurse is developing a plan of care for a client with an electrolyte imbalance and identifies a nursing diagnosis of decreased physical mobility. Which alteration is most likely the etiology?
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: A deficit in sodium concentration results in muscular weakness and lethargy. Muscle fatigue and hypotonia are caused by hypercalcemia. Muscle weakness and fatigue are classic signs of hypokalemia. Hypermagnesemia can cause muscle weakness, paralysis, and coma.
Question 3 of 5
A 50-year-old depressed client has recently lost his job. He has been reluctant to leave his hospital room. Nursing care would include:
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: The client should be encouraged to attend the unit activities. The nurse and client should choose a few activities for the client to attend that will be positive experiences for him. The nurse should encourage the client to discuss his feelings and to begin to deal with the depression. Depressed persons often have little appetite and poor fluid intake. Constipation is common. A calm, consistent level of stimuli is most effective. Sensory deprivation and overstimulation should be avoided.
Question 4 of 5
The nurse is preparing to administer a dose of nitroglycerin sublingual to a client with chest pain. Which instruction should be given to the client?
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: Nitroglycerin sublingual tablets are placed under the tongue to dissolve, allowing rapid absorption to relieve angina. Swallowing, chewing, or taking with milk reduces effectiveness or delays onset.
Question 5 of 5
The nurse is caring for a client with a diagnosis of gestational trophoblastic disease. Which intervention is most appropriate?
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: Gestational trophoblastic disease requires monitoring hCG levels to assess for resolution or progression to malignancy (e.g. choriocarcinoma).
Tocolytics fetal monitoring and vaginal delivery are not indicated as there is no viable fetus.