NCLEX-PN
NCLEX Trainer Test 5 Questions
Extract:
Question 1 of 5
The nurse is monitoring a client’s EKG strip and notes coupled premature ventricular contractions greater than 10 per minute.
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: Lidocaine is the drug of choice for frequent or coupled PVCs, as it suppresses ventricular arrhythmias that could lead to ventricular tachycardia. Atropine treats bradycardia, isoproterenol is used for heart block, and verapamil is a calcium-channel blocker for supraventricular arrhythmias.
Question 2 of 5
A client has been taking furosemide (Lasix) for the past week. The nurse recognizes which finding may indicate the client is experiencing a negative side effect from the medication?
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: Decreased appetite. Lasix causes a loss of potassium if a supplement is not taken. Signs and symptoms of hypokalemia include anorexia, fatigue, nausea, decreased GI motility, muscle weakness, and dysrhythmias.
Question 3 of 5
A client with MRSA is receiving Vanomycin (Vancocin) IV. If the client experiences 'red man' syndrome, the nurse should:
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: Red man syndrome is caused by rapid vancomycin infusion, leading to histamine release. Slowing the infusion and monitoring blood pressure manage symptoms. It's not normal, and discontinuing is unnecessary.
Question 4 of 5
The nurse is to administer Lanoxin(digoxin) elixir to a 6-month old with a congenital heart defect. The nurse auscultates an apical pulse rate of 100 . The nurse should:
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: A pulse of 100 in a 6-month-old is normal (80-150 bpm), so the nurse should administer digoxin . Calling the physician or holding the dose is unnecessary. Rechecking later is not standard.
Question 5 of 5
In providing care to a 14 year-old adolescent with scoliosis, which of the following will be most difficult for this client?
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: Looking different from their peers. Conformity is critical at age 14, and visible differences due to scoliosis treatment can be challenging.