NCLEX-RN
RN NCLEX Practice Test Questions
Extract:
Question 1 of 5
The nurse is caring for a client with a history of heart failure. Which discharge instruction is most important?
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: Daily weight monitoring detects fluid retention early in heart failure, allowing timely intervention. Exercise should be moderate, sodium restricted, and pain relievers used cautiously.
Question 2 of 5
A 22-year-old client presents with a diagnosis of antisocial personality disorder and a history of using drugs, writing numerous checks with insufficient funds, and stealing. He appears charming and intelligent, and the other clients are impressed and want to be liked by him. The greatest problem that may arise from this situation is that:
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: This answer is correct. Persons with antisocial personality disorder typically are very manipulative. This answer is incorrect. The client's behavior cannot cause another person to become psychotic. This answer is incorrect. Psychosis is not a symptom of antisocial personality. One of the criteria for diagnosis of this disorder is that no psychosis be present. In addition, the client would love the attention. This answer is incorrect. Self-mutilative behavior is characteristic of the borderline personality disorder.
Question 3 of 5
A female client who has chronic obstructive pulmonary disease (COPD) has presented in the emergency department with cough productive of yellow sputum and increasing shortness of breath. On room air, her blood gases are as follows: pH 7.30 mm Hg, PCO2 60 mm Hg, PO2 55 mm Hg, HCO3 32 mEq/L. These arterial blood gases reflect:
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: Low pH, high PCO2, and normal HCO3 indicate uncompensated respiratory acidosis, reflecting acute exacerbation of COPD.
Question 4 of 5
The nurse is caring for a client with osteoporosis who is being discharged on alendronate (Fosamax). Which statement would indicate a need for further teaching?
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: Alendronate should be taken in the morning on an empty stomach, not before bedtime (
A), indicating a need for further teaching. Upright positioning (
B), taking with water (
C), and avoiding food (
D) are correct.
Question 5 of 5
Assessment of parturient reveals the following: cervical dilation 6 cm and station 22; no progress in the last 4 hours. Uterine contractions decreasing in frequency and intensity. Marked molding of the presenting fetal head is described. The physician orders, 'Begin oxytocin induction at 1 mU/min.' The nurse should:
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: Oxytocin stimulates labor but should not be used until CPD (cephalopelvic disproportion) is ruled out in a dysfunctional labor. This answer is the correct protocol for oxytocin administration, but the medication should not be used until CPD is ruled out. This answer is the correct manner to interpret effective stimulation, but oxytocin should not be used until CPD is ruled out. This answer is the appropriate nursing action because the scenario presents a dysfunctional labor pattern that may be caused by CPD. Oxytocin administration is contraindicated in CPD.