NCLEX Questions, ATI NCLEX-RN Practice Questions Questions, NCLEX-RN Questions, Nurselytic

Questions 158

NCLEX-RN

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Question 1 of 5

The nurse is caring for a client with a history of a seizure disorder who is receiving Lamotrigine (Lamictal). The nurse should monitor the client for:

Correct Answer: A

Rationale: Lamotrigine can cause a serious rash, including Stevens-Johnson syndrome, requiring immediate monitoring and reporting. Hypotension, hyperglycemia, and weight gain are not primary concerns.

Question 2 of 5

A client with a history of a liver transplant is receiving Tacrolimus (Prograf). The nurse should monitor the client for:

Correct Answer: A

Rationale: Tacrolimus is nephrotoxic, requiring monitoring of renal function (e.g., creatinine). Hyperglycemia is possible but less critical, and hypotension/hair loss are not primary concerns.

Question 3 of 5

The client is prescribed ciprofloxacin (Cipro) for a urinary tract infection. Which instruction should the nurse include?

Correct Answer: B

Rationale: Ciprofloxacin can cause photosensitivity, so avoiding sun exposure prevents skin reactions. Dairy products reduce absorption, and the full course must be completed, regardless of symptoms.

Question 4 of 5

A client in the family planning clinic asks the nurse about the most likely time for her to conceive. The nurse explains that conception is most likely to occur when:

Correct Answer: B

Rationale: Conception is most likely during ovulation triggered by a surge in luteinizing hormone (LH). Low estrogen thin endometrium or low progesterone are not associated with ovulation.

Question 5 of 5

The nurse is caring for a client with a diagnosis of preeclampsia. Which vital sign change is most concerning?

Correct Answer: A

Rationale: A blood pressure of 160/110 in preeclampsia indicates severe hypertension increasing the risk of stroke or eclampsia and requires immediate intervention. The other vital signs are within normal limits.

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