NCLEX-RN
Free NCLEX RN Exam Practice Questions Questions
Extract:
Question 1 of 5
The nurse is caring for a client with a history of liver cirrhosis who is prescribed lactulose (Cephulac). The nurse should expect the client to experience which of the following effects?
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: Lactulose reduces ammonia levels in cirrhosis by promoting its excretion, preventing hepatic encephalopathy.
Question 2 of 5
A client has been taking lisinopril for 3 months. The client reports to the nurse a persistent dry cough that began about 1 month ago. The nurse interprets that the most likely reason for the client's complaint is what?
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: A frequent side effect of therapy with any of the angiotensin-converting enzyme (ACE) inhibitors, such as lisinopril, is the appearance of a persistent, dry cough. The cough generally does not improve while the client is taking the medication. Clients are advised to notify the primary health care provider if the cough becomes very troublesome to them. The other options are incorrect interpretations.
Question 3 of 5
A client with a history of heart failure is admitted with dyspnea. Which position should the nurse place the client in?
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: Fowler's position (semi-upright) reduces preload and eases breathing in heart failure clients with dyspnea.
Question 4 of 5
Which test result should the nurse review to determine the compatibility of blood from two different donors?
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: The indirect Coombs' test detects circulating antibodies against red blood cells (RBCs) and is the screening component of a prescription to 'type and screen' a client's blood. This test is used in addition to the ABO typing, which is normally done to determine blood type. The Rh factor is determined at the same time as the ABO type. The direct Coombs' test is used to detect idiopathic hemolytic anemia by detecting the presence of autoantibodies against the client's RBCs.
Question 5 of 5
Immediately after the client receives an injection of bupivacaine (Marcaine), he becomes restless and nervous and reports a feeling of impending doom. Which of the following actions by the nurse is appropriate at this time?
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: Restlessness, nervousness, and a feeling of impending doom after bupivacaine injection may indicate systemic toxicity or an allergic reaction, requiring immediate vital sign assessment to guide further action. Talking, reassurance, or administering epinephrine without assessment is premature.