NCLEX Questions, NCLEX-RN Exam Questions, NCLEX-RN Questions, Nurselytic

Questions 158

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Question 1 of 5

The nurse is caring for a client with a history of bipolar disorder. Which medication is most likely to be prescribed for mood stabilization?

Correct Answer: B

Rationale: Lithium carbonate is a first-line mood stabilizer for bipolar disorder, preventing manic and depressive episodes. Fluoxetine treats depression, alprazolam is for anxiety, and methylphenidate is for ADHD.

Question 2 of 5

The nurse is teaching a client with a history of psoriasis about skin care. The nurse should tell the client to:

Correct Answer: A

Rationale: Moisturizing the skin helps reduce dryness and scaling in psoriasis, improving skin barrier function and comfort.

Question 3 of 5

When preparing a client for magnetic resonance imaging, the nurse should implement which of the following?

Correct Answer: C

Rationale: Removing jewelry and checking for metal implants prevents MRI-related injuries due to magnetic fields. Consent and atropine (
A), scrubbing (
B), and Benadryl (
D) are not standard for MRI prep.

Question 4 of 5

A 3-year-old child has had symptoms of influenza including fever, productive cough, nausea, vomiting, and sore throat for the past several days. In caring for a young child with symptoms of influenza, the mother must be cautioned about:

Correct Answer: A

Rationale: Aspirin should never be given to children with influenza because of the possibility of causing Reye's syndrome. Pepto-Bismol is also classified as a salicylate and should be avoided. Depending on the severity of symptoms, the child may be receiving IV therapy or clear liquids. The disease has a 1-3 day incubation period and affected children are most infectious 24 hours before and after the onset of symptoms. Although viral pneumonia can be a complication of influenza, this would not be an initial priority.

Question 5 of 5

The nurse working with a client who is out of control should follow a model of intervention that includes which of the following?

Correct Answer: A

Rationale: Approaching a client's aggressive behavior on a continuum of least restrictive care is in agreement with his or her rights (i.e., verbal methods to help maintain control, medication, seclusion, and restraints, as necessary). Approaching a client in a challenging manner is threatening and inappropriate. A non-challenging and calm approach reflects staff in control and may increase client's internal control. It is inappropriate to leave an aggressive client who is acting out alone. The nurse should acquire qualified help to prevent client from harm or injury to self or others. Moving a client to seclusion immediately for shouting is inappropriate. The nurse should offer the client an opportunity to control self with limit setting. The client should understand that the staff will assist with control if necessary (i.e., quietly accompany out of environment to decrease stimulation and allow for verbalization) employing the least restrictive care model of intervention.

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