NCLEX-PN
NCLEX Trainer Test 3 Questions
Extract:
Question 1 of 5
The nurse is caring for a client with a history of HIV/AIDS.
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: A CD4 count of 150 cells/mm³ indicates severe immunosuppression in HIV/AIDS, increasing infection risk and requiring immediate intervention. High viral load is concerning but less urgent, and normal WBC and hemoglobin are unremarkable.
Question 2 of 5
A client has a repair of a hiatal hernia using a thoracic approach. During the immediate post-op period, the nurse should carefully assess the client for:
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: A thoracic approach affects the chest, so respiratory changes (e.g., distress, decreased oxygen saturation) are critical to assess post-op. Appetite, anxiety, and activity intolerance are less immediate concerns.
Question 3 of 5
An adult client became incontinent while hospitalized. The client now drinks very little. The nurse understands that this is:
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: Reduced fluid intake is a coping strategy to avoid incontinence, though it risks dehydration, reflecting an attempt to manage embarrassment.
Extract:
The nurse responds to a train derailment.
Question 4 of 5
After making an initial assessment, which of the following clients should the nurse see FIRST?
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: Strategy: Think ABCs. (1) requires further assessment, could be amniotic fluid or it could be urine (2) correct-indicates arterial bleeding; apply direct pressure; high risk for shock (3) stable patient (4) possible hip fracture, no indication of respiratory difficulty stated
Extract:
Question 5 of 5
The nurse is caring for a client with a history of atrial fibrillation.
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: Warfarin is the standard anticoagulant for preventing thromboembolism in atrial fibrillation, reducing stroke risk. Aspirin and clopidogrel are antiplatelets, and heparin is used short-term or in acute settings.