NCLEX-RN
Mock NCLEX RN Exam Questions
Extract:
Question 1 of 5
The nurse is caring for a client with a cerebrovascular accident (CVA) who is complaining of being nauseated and is requesting an emesis basin. Which action would the nurse take first?
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: Turning the client to one side prevents aspiration, a priority in a nauseated CVA client with potential swallowing deficits. Administering an antiemetic (
A) or notifying the physician (
D) is secondary, and ice (
B) is ineffective.
Question 2 of 5
A 1-year-old child is to receive an IM injection ordered by his pediatrician. He has fallen asleep in his mother's arms when the nurse approaches. Which approach is most appropriate at this time?
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: If awakened first, the child will know that nothing painful will be done without the child being alerted. The ventrogluteal site is a safe site for children because it is a large muscle free of major nerves and blood vessels. The dorsogluteal site is not recommended in children who have not been walking for at least 1 year because the muscle is not fully developed. The parent will be able to offer support and comfort during and after the injection.
Question 3 of 5
A 3-year-old child is admitted with a diagnosis of possible noncommunicating hydrocephalus. What is the first symptom that indicates increased intracranial pressure?
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: Headache is the earliest symptom of increased intracranial pressure in children, preceding other signs like seizures or ataxia.
Question 4 of 5
The client at 30 weeks gestation is admitted with preterm labor. The physician orders indomethacin. The nurse should monitor for which side effect?
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: Indomethacin a tocolytic can reduce fetal urine output leading to oligohydramnios (low amniotic fluid). Maternal hypertension fetal bradycardia and hypoglycemia are not common side effects of indomethacin.
Question 5 of 5
One of the most dramatic and serious complications associated with bacterial meningitis is Waterhouse-Friderichsen syndrome, which is:
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: Waterhouse-Friderichsen syndrome is peripheral circulatory collapse, which may result in extensive and diffuse intravascular coagulation and thrombocytopenia resulting in death. Syndrome of inappropriate antidiuretic hormone is a complication of meningitis, but it is not Waterhouse-Friderichsen syndrome. Cerebral edema resulting in hydrocephalus is a complication of meningitis, but it is not Waterhouse-Friderichsen syndrome. Auditory nerve damage resulting in permanent hearing loss is a complication of meningitis, but it is not Waterhouse-Friderichsen syndrome.