NCLEX-RN
NCLEX RN Free Practice Questions Questions
Extract:
Question 1 of 5
The nurse is caring for a client who is receiving oxytocin (Pitocin) to induce labor. Which finding would prompt the nurse to discontinue the oxytocin infusion?
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: Late decelerations indicate uteroplacental insufficiency a serious complication of oxytocin-induced hyperstimulation. Discontinuing oxytocin is necessary to restore fetal oxygenation. The other findings are normal or expected during labor induction.
Question 2 of 5
The orthopedic nurse should be particularly alert for a fat embolus in which of the following clients having the greatest risk for this complication after a fracture?
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: Fat embolus is most common in long bone fractures, especially the femur, and in young adults. A 21-year-old with a femur fracture (
C) is at highest risk. Fibula (
A), wrist (
B), and arm (
D) fractures have lower risk.
Question 3 of 5
During discharge planning, parents of a child with rheumatic fever should be able to identify which of the following as toxic symptoms of sodium salicylate?
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: These are toxic symptoms of sodium salicylate. (B, C,
D) These are not symptoms associated with sodium salicylate.
Question 4 of 5
The nurse is caring for clients on a respiratory unit. Upon receiving the following client reports, which client should be seen first?
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: Edema and neck vein distention in a bronchitis client suggest right heart failure or cor pulmonale, requiring immediate assessment. Emphysema discharge (
A), antibiotics (
B), and abnormal PO2 (
D) are less urgent.
Question 5 of 5
A 67-year-old man had a physical examination prior to beginning volunteer work at the hospital. A routine chest x-ray demonstrated left ventricular hypertrophy. His blood pressure was 180/110. He is 45 lb overweight. His diet is high in sodium and fat. He has a strong family history of hypertension. The client is placed on antihypertensive medication; a low-sodium, low-fat diet; and an exercise regimen. On his next visit, compliance would best be determined by:
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: A blood pressure within acceptable range best demonstrates compliance, but weight loss cannot be accomplished without adherence to medication, diet, and exercise. Absence of side effects does not indicate compliance with medication. Pill counts can be misleading because the client can alter pill counts prior to visit. Left ventricular hypertrophy is not an accurate measure of compliance because hypertrophy frequently does not decrease even with pharmacological management. Therapeutic blood levels measure the drug level at the time of the test. There is no indication of compliance several days before testing.