NCLEX-PN
NCLEX Trainer Test 8 Questions
Extract:
Question 1 of 5
The nurse is caring for a client receiving warfarin (Coumadin) 5 mg PO daily. Which of the following client statements would be of GREATest concern to the nurse?
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: Ibuprofen, an NSAID, increases bleeding risk when taken with warfarin, a significant concern due to potential for hemorrhage. Options A, C, and D are less critical: spinach (vitamin K) may require dose adjustment, moderate wine is generally safe, and walking is beneficial.
Question 2 of 5
A client is in the third month of her first pregnancy. During the interview, she tells the nurse that she has several sex partners and is unsure of the identity of the baby's father. Which of the following nursing interventions is a priority?
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: Counsel the woman to consent to HIV screening. The client's behavior places her at high risk for HIV. Testing is the first step to ensure early treatment if positive.
Extract:
A client is diagnosed with bipolar disorder and is in a manic phase with combative behavior.
Question 3 of 5
An INITIAL nursing priority is to
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: Strategy: Answers are implementations. Determine the outcome of each answer choice. Is it desired? (1) is very important to ensure adequate hygiene and nutrition, but behavioral control and client/milieu safety are an initial priority (2) decreasing environmental stimulation is an additional strategy that, when utilized in conjunction with psychopharmacologic intervention, can reduce hyperactivity and aggressive acts; just decreasing environmental stimulation will not diminish client's internal sense of agitation and aggression (3) this action is inappropriate at this time (4) correct-is most important to gain control with a physically aggressive client in manic phase; client has significant sympathetic nervous system stimulation and will require psychopharmacologic intervention with both sedative medications and mood-stabilizing agents
Extract:
Question 4 of 5
A 48-year-old woman is seen in the outpatient clinic for complaints of irregular menses.
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: Irregular menses in a 48-year-old woman is most likely due to menopause, as ovarian function declines between ages 45- Stress lacks supporting data, fibroids cause excessive bleeding, and tubal pregnancy typically presents with missed periods and pain.
Question 5 of 5
Which of the following lab values might the nurse expect to see in a client with Addison's disease?
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: Addison's disease causes hyperkalemia (elevated potassium, not 3.5 mEq/L, which is normal) and hyponatremia due to adrenal insufficiency.