NCLEX-PN
NCLEX Trainer Test 2 Questions
Extract:
Question 1 of 5
The nurse is administering terbutaline (Brethine) to a client in labor.
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: Terbutaline causes maternal tachycardia, and a pulse of 144 indicates a significant side effect. Withholding the medication is the priority to prevent further complications like pulmonary edema. Reducing the dose, administering, or delaying without action is unsafe.
Question 2 of 5
A depressed client who has recently been acting suicidal is now more social and energetic than usual. Smilingly he tells the nurse 'I've made some decisions about my life.' What should be the nurse's initial response?
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: Are you thinking about killing yourself? This validates suicidal ideation to assess the seriousness of the risk.
Question 3 of 5
The nurse is caring for a client with a history of heart failure who is receiving metoprolol (Lopressor) 50 mg PO bid. Which of the following findings would be of GREATest concern to the nurse?
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: A heart rate of 50 bpm indicates bradycardia, a serious side effect of metoprolol, a beta-blocker, requiring immediate evaluation to prevent reduced cardiac output. Options B, C, and D are normal: blood pressure 130/80 mmHg, respiratory rate 18 breaths/min, and oxygen saturation 95% are stable.
Extract:
A child in the waiting room who can walk up and down steps, has a steady gait, can stand on one foot momentarily, and jumps with both feet.
Question 4 of 5
The nurse identifies the child's chronological age to be
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: Strategy: Picture the child at each age. (1) unable to walk up and down stairs with hand held until 18 months (2) unable to jump until 30 months (3) correct-able to jump with both feet and stand on one foot momentarily at 30 months (4) behaviors are seen in younger child
Extract:
Question 5 of 5
The physician has prescribed hydralazine (Apresoline) for a client with acute glomerulonephritis. Which finding indicates that the drug is having the desired effect?
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: Apresoline (hydralazine) is an antihypertensive; therefore, a decrease in blood pressure indicates the medication is working. Answers A, B, and D indicate that the overall condition of the client is improving, but they are not the result of the medication.