NCLEX-PN
NCLEX-PN Practice Questions Quizlet Questions
Extract:
Question 1 of 5
The nurse has an order for 75 mg of Demerol (meperidine) and 50 mg of Phenergan (promethazine) to be given to a post-operative client. The nurse should:
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: Drawing medications separately and using different sites prevents incompatibility reactions. Combining in one syringe risks precipitation, the medications are synergistic, and dorsogluteal/deltoid sites are less preferred.
Question 2 of 5
A client is receiving chemotherapy for cancer and develops thrombocytopenia. What should the nurse include in the client's plan of care because of the thrombocytopenia?
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: Thrombocytopenia increases bleeding risk; avoiding injections prevents hematomas or hemorrhage. Positioning, fluid limits, or exercise don't address bleeding risk.
Question 3 of 5
A 55-year-old woman is recovering from a bowel resection. She is receiving epidural analgesia. She lived by herself right up until admission and has no cognitive deficits. All of the following interventions will reduce the risk of client falls. Which would be most appropriate for this client?
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: Keeping the bed low and call bell accessible promotes safety and independence, most appropriate for a cognitively intact client.
Question 4 of 5
The nurse is performing an assessment on a client who is cachectic and has developed an enterocutaneous fistula following surgery to relieve a small bowel obstruction. The client's total protein level is reported as 4.5 g/dl. Which of the following would the nurse anticipate?
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: The client is not absorbing nutrients adequately as evidenced by the cachexia and low protein levels. (A normal total serum protein level is 6.0-8.0 g/dl.) TPN will promote a positive nitrogen balance in this client who is unable to digest and absorb nutrients adequately.
Question 5 of 5
The nurse is preparing to administer a dose of morphine sulfate to a client with postoperative pain. The client reports nausea. The nurse should
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: Nausea is a common side effect of morphine, and administering an antiemetic beforehand (if ordered) prevents discomfort while allowing pain relief. Administering without addressing nausea (
A) is inappropriate, holding the dose (
B) delays pain control, and dilution (
D) is incorrect for IV morphine.