NCLEX-PN
NCLEX Trainer Test 2 Questions
Extract:
A 25-year-old primigravida with type I diabetes mellitus.
Question 1 of 5
The nurse explains to the client that her insulin needs will
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: Strategy: Think about each answer choice. (1) correct-needs increase during pregnancy due to hormonal interference in glucose metabolism (2) needs increase during pregnancy due to hormonal interference in glucose metabolism (3) insulin needs will decrease after delivery (4) needs increase during pregnancy
Extract:
A 75-year-old man following a right total hip replacement. The nurse's notes indicate that since the surgery the patient has become disoriented and confused at night. One evening as the nurse prepares the patient for sleep, the patient glances to his left and says, 'Oh, you think so?' and starts to laugh.
Question 2 of 5
Which of the following responses by the nurse is the BEST?
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: Strategy: Remember therapeutic communication. (1) yes/no question, may make client defensive and block communication (2) feeds into client's altered-reality state, nurse should suspect a hallucination (3) confrontation would block communication (4) correct-therapeutic statement of client's nonverbal communication
Extract:
Question 3 of 5
The nurse is caring for a client who is receiving IV vancomycin for a methicillin-resistant Staphylococcus aureus (MRSA) infection. Which of the following findings would be of GREATest concern to the nurse?
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: Redness at the IV site suggests phlebitis or infiltration, which can lead to tissue damage or reduced vancomycin delivery, requiring immediate action. Options A, B, and D are normal: blood pressure 130/80 mmHg, heart rate 88 bpm, and urine output 50 mL/hour indicate stability.
Question 4 of 5
An adult is admitted with pernicious anemia. Which factor in the client's history is most likely related to the development of pernicious anemia?
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: Gastrectomy removes the stomach's intrinsic factor-producing cells, leading to vitamin B12 malabsorption, a primary cause of pernicious anemia.
Question 5 of 5
The nurse is caring for a client who is receiving a continuous IV infusion of insulin for diabetic ketoacidosis. Which of the following laboratory results should the nurse report immediately?
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: Hypokalemia (3.0 mEq/L) risks arrhythmias during insulin therapy for DKA. Options A, C, and D are less urgent.