NCLEX-RN
Mock NCLEX RN Exam Questions
Extract:
Question 1 of 5
The client is diagnosed with glaucoma. Which medication is most likely to be prescribed?
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: Timolol, a beta-blocker, is commonly prescribed for glaucoma to reduce intraocular pressure by decreasing aqueous humor production. Atropine increases pressure, pilocarpine is less common, and acetazolamide is used acutely.
Question 2 of 5
Prior to his discharge from the hospital, a cardiac client is started on digoxin (Lanoxin) 25 mg po qd. The nurse initiates discharge teaching. Which of the following statements by the client would validate an understanding of his medication?
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The first signs of digoxin toxicity include abdominal pain, anorexia, nausea, vomiting, and visual disturbances. The physician should be notified if any of these symptoms are experienced. The positive inotropic effects of digoxin increase cardiac output and result in an enhanced activity tolerance. 'Feeling better' indicates the drug is working and medication therapy must be continued. Clients should be taught to take their pulse prior to taking the digoxin. If their pulse rate becomes irregular, slows significantly, or is >100 bpm the physician should be notified. Antacids decrease the effectiveness of digoxin.
Question 3 of 5
Parents of young children often need anticipatory guidance from the nurse. Parents may have little knowledge regarding growth and development. Which of the following toys and activities would the nurse suggest as appropriate for a toddler?
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: These activities provide the toddler (1-3 years old) with a variety of physical activities for play, suitable for their developmental stage.
Question 4 of 5
A client reports to the nurse that the voices are practically nonstop and that he needs to leave the hospital immediately to find his girlfriend and kill her. The best verbal response to the client by the nurse at this time is:
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: This response validates the client's experience and presents reality to him. This nontherapeutic response minimizes and dismisses the client's verbalized experience. This response can be interpreted by a paranoid client as a threat, thereby increasing the client's potential for violence and loss of control. This response is also threatening. The client's behavior does not call for restraints because he has not lost control or hurt anyone. If seclusion or restraints were indicated, the nurse should never confront the client alone.
Question 5 of 5
A client suspects that she is pregnant. She reports two missed menstrual periods. The first day of her last menstrual period was August 3. Her estimated date of confinement would be:
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: Using Nägele's rule (LMP - 3 months + 7 days + 1 year), August 3 leads to an estimated delivery date of May 10.