NCLEX-RN
NCLEX-RN Exam Questions
Extract:
Question 1 of 5
The client is admitted with a suspected bowel obstruction. Which diagnostic test is most likely to confirm the diagnosis?
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: An abdominal X-ray is the initial test to confirm bowel obstruction, showing air-fluid levels or dilated loops of bowel. Barium enema and colonoscopy are contraindicated due to perforation risk, and ultrasound is less specific.
Question 2 of 5
A client with a history of rheumatoid arthritis is admitted with complaints of fatigue. The nurse should give priority to:
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: Fatigue in rheumatoid arthritis may indicate anemia of chronic disease, so monitoring for anemia is the priority.
Question 3 of 5
A normal 3-year-old child is suspected of having meningitis. The doctor has ordered a lumbar puncture. In light of this procedure and developmental characteristics of this age group, which nursing measure is most appropriate?
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The nurse should emphasize what is required to elicit cooperation and help to develop a sense of autonomy. The child may express discomfort verbally and should be encouraged to express his feelings. Selecting nonthreatening words to explain a procedure will prevent misinterpretation. When explaining the procedure to the parent with the child present, the nurse should use words that the child can understand to avoid misunderstanding.
Question 4 of 5
A 9-month-old infant is being examined in the general pediatric clinic for a routine well-child checkup. His immunizations are up to date, and his mother reports that he has had no significant illnesses or injuries. Which of the following signs would lead the nurse to believe that he has had a cerebral injury?
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: Infants older than 6 months of age should not have significant head lag. This is a sign of cerebral injury and should be referred for further evaluation.
Question 5 of 5
The nurse is caring for a client with a diagnosis of molar pregnancy. Which complication is most likely to occur?
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: Molar pregnancy can progress to choriocarcinoma a malignant tumor in rare cases. Fetal distress and preterm labor are not risks as there is no viable fetus and hypoglycemia is unrelated.