NCLEX Questions, NCLEX-RN Exam Practice Questions, NCLEX-RN Questions, Nurselytic

Questions 157

NCLEX-RN

NCLEX-RN Test Bank

NCLEX-RN Exam Practice Questions

Extract:


Question 1 of 5

The client is admitted with a diagnosis of gestational trophoblastic disease. Which symptom is most likely to be present?

Correct Answer: A

Rationale: Gestational trophoblastic disease (e.g. molar pregnancy) causes markedly elevated hCG levels due to abnormal trophoblastic proliferation. Fetal heart tones are absent uterine size is larger and hypotension is not typical.

Question 2 of 5

The nurse is assessing a client with suspected meningitis. Which finding is most concerning?

Correct Answer: A

Rationale: Neck stiffness (nuchal rigidity) is a hallmark sign of meningitis, indicating meningeal irritation and requiring urgent evaluation. Fever, photophobia, and headache are common but less specific without neck stiffness.

Question 3 of 5

A behavioral modification program is recommended by the multidisciplinary team working with a 15-year-old client with anorexia nervosa. A nursing plan of care based on this modality would include:

Correct Answer: B

Rationale: This answer is incorrect. Role playing is based on learning but is not based on the behavioral modification model. This answer is correct. The behavioral modification model is based on negative and positive reinforcers to change behavior. This answer is incorrect. Verbal catharsis is not an intervention based on behavioral modification. This answer is incorrect. Although an acceptable nursing intervention, it is not based on behavioral modification.

Question 4 of 5

A client with a history of a stroke is receiving tPA (alteplase). The nurse should:

Correct Answer: A

Rationale: tPA, a thrombolytic, increases bleeding risk, requiring close monitoring for signs like hematuria or hematoma. It’s given over 1 hour, glucose is unrelated, and fluids are not restricted.

Question 5 of 5

The nurse caring for a client with a head injury would recognize which assessment finding as the most indicative of increased ICP?

Correct Answer: D

Rationale: Papilledema (optic disc swelling) is a specific sign of increased ICP due to pressure on the optic nerve. Vomiting (
A), headache (
B), and dizziness (
C) are less specific and occur in other conditions.

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