NCLEX-RN
NCLEX-RN Exam Practice Questions
Extract:
Question 1 of 5
The client is admitted with a diagnosis of gestational trophoblastic disease. Which symptom is most likely to be present?
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: Gestational trophoblastic disease (e.g. molar pregnancy) causes markedly elevated hCG levels due to abnormal trophoblastic proliferation. Fetal heart tones are absent uterine size is larger and hypotension is not typical.
Question 2 of 5
A 22-year-old client who is being seen in the clinic for a possible asthma attack stops wheezing suddenly as the nurse is doing a lung assessment. Which one of the following nursing interventions is most important?
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: During impending respiratory failure or asthmatic complications, the client is placed in the high-Fowler position to facilitate comfort and promote optimal gas exchange. Arterial blood gases are monitored in the treatment of respiratory failure during an asthma attack, but it is not an initial intervention. O2 therapy is used during an asthma attack, but it is not the initial intervention. The usual prescribed amount is a cautiously low flow rate of 1-2 L/min. Wheezing is a characteristic clinical finding during an asthma attack. If wheezing suddenly ceases, it usually indicates a complete airway obstruction and requires immediate treatment for respiratory failure or arrest.
Question 3 of 5
A client is being discharged after lithotripsy for removal of a kidney stone. Which statement by the client indicates understanding of the nurse's instructions?
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: Straining urine and saving stone fragments post-lithotripsy allows analysis and confirms stone passage. Starting in the morning (
A) is incorrect, saving all urine (
B) is unnecessary, and not straining (
D) misses stone collection.
Question 4 of 5
A 3-year-old female client is brought into the pediatric clinic because she limps. She has not been to the clinic since she was 9 months old. The nurse practitioner describes the limp as a 'Trendelenburg gait.' This gait is characteristic of:
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: (A, C,
D) A Trendelenburg gait is not characteristic of any of these disorders. The downward slant of one hip is a positive sign of dislocation in the weight-bearing hip. If one hip is dislocated, the child walks with a characteristic limp known as the Trendelenburg gait.
Question 5 of 5
The nurse is developing a plan of care for a client with an electrolyte imbalance and identifies a nursing diagnosis of decreased physical mobility. Which alteration is most likely the etiology?
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: A deficit in sodium concentration results in muscular weakness and lethargy. Muscle fatigue and hypotonia are caused by hypercalcemia. Muscle weakness and fatigue are classic signs of hypokalemia. Hypermagnesemia can cause muscle weakness, paralysis, and coma.