NCLEX Questions, NCLEX Trainer Test 4 Questions, NCLEX-PN Questions, Nurselytic

Questions 157

NCLEX-PN

NCLEX-PN Test Bank

NCLEX Trainer Test 4 Questions

Extract:


Question 1 of 5

Prochlorperazine maleate (Compazine) 10 mg IM has been ordered for a client.

Correct Answer: C

Rationale: Prochlorperazine (Compazine) is incompatible with other medications in the same syringe, so it must be drawn and administered separately from Stadol. Monitoring vital signs (e.g., blood pressure for orthostatic hypotension) is important but not the priority before administration. Dilution and route verification are unnecessary.

Question 2 of 5

A client with angina is experiencing migraine headaches. The physician has prescribed sumatriptan succinate (Imitrex). Which nursing action is most appropriate?

Correct Answer: A

Rationale: Sumatriptan is contraindicated in clients with angina due to its vasoconstrictive effects, which could exacerbate cardiac ischemia. Consulting the RN to verify the order is the most appropriate action. Obtaining samples, discharge teaching, or consulting social services do not address the safety concern, so answers B, C, and D are incorrect.

Question 3 of 5

A baby girl is born with a meningomyelocele. To prevent trauma to the sac, the nurse should place the infant:

Correct Answer: B

Rationale: Placing the infant prone with hips slightly elevated protects the meningomyelocele sac from trauma and pressure.

Extract:

An eight-year-old receiving chemotherapy for six months.


Question 4 of 5

Which of the following responses by the nurse is BEST?

Correct Answer: A

Rationale: Strategy: Remember therapeutic communication. (1) correct-encourages ventilation of thoughts and feelings regarding the concern (2) inappropriate (3) ignores the child's concern with dying (4) ignores the child's concern with dying

Extract:

A client is receiving heparin via continuous IV infusion for management of deep vein thrombosis (DVT). The partial thromboplastin time (PTT) is 1.5 times greater than normal.


Question 5 of 5

Which of the following actions by the nurse is MOST appropriate?

Correct Answer: D

Rationale: Strategy: Answers are a mix of assessments and implementations. Does this situation require validation? No. Determine the outcome of each answer. (1) no reason to discontinue or slow the infusion because the PTT is within a therapeutic range (2) no reason to discontinue or slow the infusion because the PTT is within a therapeutic range (3) prothrombin time (PT) Test is useful for assessing warfarin (Coumadin) therapy (4) correct-expected result of heparin therapy is a prolonged PTT of 1.5 times the control, without signs of hemorrhage

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