NCLEX-PN
NCLEX PN Test Questions Questions
Extract:
Question 1 of 5
One month ago, a client was prescribed phenytoin 100 mg orally 3 times daily. The client's current serum phenytoin level is 32 mcg/mL (127 μmol/L). Which action by the health care provider does the nurse anticipate?
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: A phenytoin level of 32 mcg/mL is toxic (therapeutic range: 10-20 mcg/mL), so the dose should be decreased (
B). Continuing (
A) or increasing (
C) the dose risks toxicity. Repeating the level (
D) delays intervention.
Question 2 of 5
A 78-year-old client is admitted following a cerebrovascular accident. He cannot move his left arm and leg. Which finding would indicate to the nurse that the client also has homonymous hemianopia?
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: Homonymous hemianopia, a visual field defect from right brain stroke, causes left-sided vision loss, so the client misses the nurse on the left, unlike arm movement, swallowing, or speech issues.
Question 3 of 5
The home health nurse is reinforcing teaching for a client with atrial fibrillation who is prescribed digoxin 0.25 mg orally on even-numbered days. Which client statement will require further teaching about digoxin?
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: Taking blood pressure (
D) is unrelated to digoxin monitoring. Anorexia (A Anorexia (
A), dizziness (
B), and visual changes (
C) are signs of digoxin toxicity, requiring provider notification.
Question 4 of 5
The physician orders lisinopril (Zestril) and furosemide (Lasix) to be administered concomitantly to the client with hypertension. The nurse should:
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: Lisinopril and furosemide are commonly prescribed together for hypertension, as lisinopril is an ACE inhibitor that reduces blood pressure, and furosemide is a diuretic that reduces fluid volume. There is no contraindication for administering them concomitantly, so answer A is incorrect. Administering them separately is unnecessary, so answer C is incorrect. Contacting the pharmacy is not needed unless there is a supply issue, so answer D is incorrect.
Question 5 of 5
The nurse is caring for a client with benign prostatic hypertrophy (BPH). Which of the following assessments would the nurse anticipate finding?
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: Frequent urination. BPH causes overflow incontinence with frequent urination in small amounts due to bladder obstruction.