NCLEX-PN
NCLEX Trainer Test 3 Questions
Extract:
A 56-year-old woman hospitalized with bipolar disorder. While the patient is in the manic phase.
Question 1 of 5
Nursing interventions should involve
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: Strategy: Answers are implementations. Determine the outcome of each answer choice. Is it desired? (1) will not be effective in changing behaviors, requires an attentive listener (2) correct-patient experiences hyperactivity, poor concentration, and distractibility, redirect into activity that promotes rest, nourishment, reduce stimuli (3) isolation not required, would increase anxiety and hostility (4) disorientation usually not seen, no memory disturbance
Extract:
The nurse is supervising care given to clients on a medical/surgical unit.
Question 2 of 5
The nurse should intervene if which of the following is observed?
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: Strategy: 'Nurse should intervene' indicates that you are looking for an incorrect action. (1) appropriate procedure, prevents airborne contamination (2) insulin is the only medication that can be given, compatible with TPN (3) correct-applying lip balm or handling contact lenses is prohibited in work areas where exposure to bloodborne pathogens may occur (4) use airborne precautions for TB, private room with negative air pressure, minimum of six exchanges per hour
Extract:
Question 3 of 5
The nurse is to administer the daily dose of digoxin to an adult client. What is it essential for the nurse to do before administering the medication?
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: Digoxin slows heart rate; checking the apical pulse ensures it's above 60 bpm to avoid bradycardia. Temperature, blood pressure, and respirations are less critical.
Question 4 of 5
An adult is thought to have myasthenia gravis. The nurse knows that which test is most likely to be ordered for the client?
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: The edrophonium test, which temporarily improves muscle strength in myasthenia gravis, confirms diagnosis by enhancing neuromuscular transmission, unlike imaging or lumbar puncture.
Question 5 of 5
A client has a repair of a hiatal hernia using a thoracic approach. During the immediate post-op period, the nurse should carefully assess the client for:
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: A thoracic approach affects the chest, so respiratory changes (e.g., distress, decreased oxygen saturation) are critical to assess post-op. Appetite, anxiety, and activity intolerance are less immediate concerns.